Question:
What does it mean that Jesus is the Son of Man?" ?
harrison w
2008-10-15 01:41:08 UTC
Jesus is referred to as the "Son of Man" 88 times in the New Testament. What does this mean? Does not the Bible say Jesus was the Son of God? How then could Jesus also be the Son of Man?

and if he was son of man that means he was born with sin,how did he wash away his own sins?
Fourteen answers:
anonymous
2008-10-15 01:54:16 UTC
To point up the fact that, although He is God, He is also wrapped in human flesh, and because He is, He is subject to all the frailties of human flesh.

He was in all ways tempted just as any human is tempted, because of that flesh, but He did not sin, because, within that flesh, He is God.

He is God...and He is a man...

Thus, He is the Son of God, but He is also the son of man.

I know, I know...but I'm only a human being, who doesn't even understand the science that went into creating even this one planet and all the diversity of life that it contains, let alone the entire universe.

Asking a human being to explain God is sort of like asking a frog to explain Friday.

So, what do I say?



"Hello, my baby, hello my honey, hello my rag-time gal...

Send me a kiss by wire, honey my heart's on fire!

If you refuse me, then you will lose me, then you'll be left alone,

Oh baby, telephone, and tell me I'm your own!!"



~~~courtesy of Michigan Frog
pugjw9896
2008-10-15 02:50:48 UTC
Jesus was born into the human system via Mary. He did not have a human father, and Mary's pregnancy was caused by God. this makes God his father...but not in the sense that sexual relations took place. none did, making it a 'virgin' birth.

Jesus was born WITHOUT sin. God ensured that any inherited sin that Mary had was not transferred to Jesus. And Mary DID have inherited sin, having two human parents.

So, through Mary, Jesus IS ' the son of man'

He is also the ' son of God'.
Matthew
2008-10-15 04:07:03 UTC
Jesus was 100% man = Son of Man.

Jesus was 100% God = Son of God.
anonymous
2008-10-15 01:57:06 UTC
He referred to himself as the Son of Man but he was also the Son of God. He made that clear also. He was half God and half human. The Holy Spirit impregnated Mary. This is explained in Luke 1. In John 1:1 we find that Jesus is the word of God, is with God and Is God. One of his names if Immanuel which means "God with us." Matt. 1:23.
kyle182
2008-10-15 01:45:28 UTC
OK, Jesus was fully human, and fully God, but was not conceived through the normal sexual ways. He was born out of Mary's womb, making him a "Son of Man"... but his father was God, making him the Son of God... so it is possible to be both!
anonymous
2008-10-15 01:59:37 UTC
I agree with Kyle182 but also Son of Man refers to his Heavenly Father saying that our Heavenly Father, who is Jesus Christ's father, is a MAN. Physical body but perfect and immortal, but a man nonetheless.

Jesus is the son of a mortal woman and a Heavenly, immortal, perfect man, who is God.

:)
wefmeister
2008-10-15 02:07:54 UTC
The term "Son of Man" has 2 significations.

The primary one is that Jesus was identifying Himself as a full fledged member of the human race, and thus a lawful representative of His fellow man. This was necessary because as sin came through a man redemption also had to come through a man.

The Hebrew rendering of the phrase "Son of Man" is "Ben Adam", or Son of Adam. Jesus had to be son of Adam to redeem the sons of Adam.



"In bringing many sons to glory, it was fitting that God, for whom and through whom everything exists, should make the author of their salvation perfect through suffering. Both the one who makes men holy and those who are made holy are of the same family. So Jesus is not ashamed to call them brothers. He says,

"I will declare your name to my brothers;

in the presence of the congregation I will sing your praises." And again,

"I will put my trust in him." And again he says,

"Here am I, and the children God has given me."



Since the children have flesh and blood, he too shared in their humanity so that by his death he might destroy him who holds the power of death—that is, the devil— and free those who all their lives were held in slavery by their fear of death. For surely it is not angels he helps, but Abraham's descendants. For this reason he had to be made like his brothers in every way, in order that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in service to God, and that he might make atonement for the sins of the people. Because he himself suffered when he was tempted, he is able to help those who are being tempted."



Hebrews 2:10-18

The other signification is that this was a designation of the Messiah, as disclosed in Daniel's prophecy:



"In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed."



Daniel 7:13-14
anonymous
2008-10-15 01:56:43 UTC
'Son of man" means "human being". Jesus became a human being for us and that is what he meant by saying "son of man".
anonymous
2008-10-15 01:46:58 UTC
Why is Jesus called Son of Man?



Jesus is referred to as the "Son of Man" 88 times in the New Testament. What does this mean? Does not the Bible say Jesus was the Son of God? How then could Jesus also be the Son of Man? A first meaning of the phrase "Son of Man" is as a reference to the prophecy of Daniel 7:13-14, "I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought Him near before Him. And there was given Him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve Him: His dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and His kingdom that which shall not be destroyed." The description "Son of Man" was a Messianic title. Jesus is the one who was given dominion and glory and a kingdom. When Jesus used this phrase related to Himself, He was assigning the “Son of Man” prophecy to Himself. The Jews of that era would have been intimately familiar with the phrase and to whom it referred. He was proclaiming Himself as the Messiah.



A second meaning of the phrase "Son of Man" is that Jesus was truly a human being. God called the prophet Ezekiel "son of man" 93 times. God was simply calling Ezekiel a human being. A son of a man is a man. Jesus was fully God (John 1:1), but He was also a human being (John 1:14). 1 John 4:2 tells us, "This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God." Yes, Jesus was the Son of God – He was in His essence God. Yes, Jesus was also the Son of Man – He was in His essence a human being. In summary, the phrase "Son of Man" indicates that Jesus is the Messiah and that He is truly a human being.



_______________________________________________



Why wasn't Jesus born with original sin?



If all people have original sin and Jesus was a human being, then didn't Jesus need to have had a sin nature?



Before we can answer this question, we need to know what the term "original sin" means. This is a term used to describe the effect of Adam's sin on his descendants (Rom. 5:12-32). Specifically, it is our inheritance of a sinful nature from Adam. The sinful nature originated with Adam and is passed down from parent to child. We are by nature children of wrath (Eph. 3:2). So, if we inherit our sinful nature from our parents, then Jesus, who had Mary as a parent, must have had a sin nature. Right? Not necessarily. I believe that the sin nature is passed down through the father. Let me explain.



Some Bible commentators, with whom I agree, hold the position that the sin nature is passed down through the father. Support for this position is found in the fact that sin entered the world through Adam, not Eve. Remember, Eve was the one who sinned first. However, sin did not enter the world through her. It entered through Adam. Rom. 5:12 says, "Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned." The concept behind this is called Federal Headship. This means that a person (a father) represents his descendants. We see this concept taught in Heb. 7:9-10, "And, so to speak, through Abraham even Levi, who received tithes, paid tithes, 10for he was still in the loins of his father when Melchizedek met him." We see in Hebrews that Levi, a distant descendant of Abraham, is said to have paid tithes to Melchizedek when Abraham was the one offering the tithes, not Levi. What this means is that there is biblical support for the idea that the sin nature was passed down through the father. Since Jesus had not literal, biological father, the sin nature was not passed down to Him. However, since He had a human mother, he was fully human but without original sin. Jesus has two natures: God and man. Col. 2:9 says, "For in Him dwells all the fullness of deity in bodily form." Jesus received His human nature from Mary, but He received His divine nature through God the Holy Spirit. Therefore, Jesus is both God and man. He was sinless, had no original sin, and was both fully God and fully man.



-Till Christ Returns



God Bless
jafar sheikh
2008-10-15 01:52:30 UTC
59

In fact the example of the birth of Isa ( Jesus) in the sight of Allah is like the

example of Adam who had no father and mother, whom He created out of dust, then said to him: "Be" and he was.



60

This is the Truth from your Rabb, therefore, do not be of those who doubt it.



61

If anyone disputes with you concerning this matter (the birth of Jesus) after full knowledge has come to you, say: "Come! Let us gather our sons and your sons, our women and your women, ourselves and yourselves: then let us earnestly pray and invoke the curse of Allah on the liars."



62

Verily this is the absolute true explanation. The fact of the matter is, that there is no god but Allah; and for sure Allah is the Mighty, the Wise.



63

But if they turn away from accepting this challenge, it will be clear proof of their mischief and Allah has the full knowledge of mischief-makers.



64

Say: "O people of the Book! Let us get together on what is common between us and you: that we shall worship none but Allah; that we shall not associate any partners with Him; that we shall not take from among ourselves any lords beside Allah." If they reject your invitation then tell them: "Bear witness that we are Muslims (who have surrendered to Allah)."
anonymous
2008-10-15 01:46:57 UTC
son of man = man



son of god = descendant of david.
anonymous
2008-10-15 01:50:36 UTC
He was a sinner (if you believe in sin) just the same as any man. If he is the man of men then he is the sinner of sinners too.
Die Kolonie (GI Styles)
2008-10-15 01:55:54 UTC
The truth just kept on blurting out. You can only BS for so long.
gingy1023
2008-10-15 01:44:30 UTC
ask your pastor


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