***Why are we not considered Jews?***
As you know, you are a Jew if:
1. You mother is a Jew
2. You convert.
Arguments against Messianic Jews being Jews.
1. Violation of 1st commandment.
2. No converts allowed. See rule #1
Babies and Reform Jews are considered Jews even though they violate the 1st commandment. So the quick answer is that a separate set of rules apply.
Here is why...
Babies and Reform Jews aren't required to belief that the Torah / Tanakh record actual historical events. Therefore, babies and Reform Jews are not required to believe:
1. God is the King of the Universe and the King of kings.
2. The covenants made by God are real and binding.
3. Abraham was a real person....making lineage to a fictitious person meaningless.
4. God giving Moses the Law was not an actual event making the law man made and man enforced instead of God made and God enforced described by Jewish scriptures.
5. All claims that Israel was divinely given becomes absurd.
Therefore, atheism is not a valid form of scriptural Judaism as it destroys Judaism at its core. You will not see the Orthodox validating the idea that scriptural Judaism is both theistic and atheistic for some very intelligent reasons.
When it comes to being a citizens in the kingdom of God where King of the universe is King of kings, there isn't a place in the universe where He is not king. Therefore, in the kingdom of the God of Israel,
1. the first command is the law where there is no other king the citizen recognizes before the King of kings. This means that when there are two kings, God takes first place. However, there is no way to read the 1st commandment in context without reading the verses in front where it states plainly that what gives God the authority to make commandments is that He lead Israel out of Egypt. It is impossible to be lead out of Egypt by God and be an atheist. The first commandment establishes God as God whether there are other gods or not.
Likewise, it is impossible to take God's name in vain if there is no God. A belief that Jews can be atheists means not only can you dishonor God by saying you don't believe He exist. But you make all the commandments God gave Moses totally meaningless...especially the third one to take God's name in vain.
2. the citizens are not allowed to practice that which contradicts the laws of the King of kings.
3. the king expects his citizens to follow the all His laws and does not allow His citizens opt out of any simply because they disagree.
4. there is an age where all citizens are to know the King of Israel and know His Law is binding.
In addition, there no record of God ever bringing the age of the prophet to an end and start the age of the Rabbi. No where. In fact, setting a seat for Elijah at Passover means there is still one prophet left to come before the age can end.
And In the 1000 years of application recorded in the Tanakh, there is no example of ONE case where ANYONE consulted the Talmud to gain insight of what God wanted.
When talking about the NT, the Talmud can't be compare and requires an easier standard if not a free pass for the following reasons:
1. Rabbinic Jews themselves can't agree whether the Talmud was given to Moses by God or if man made it. For this reason alone, the Talmud has to be examined under an easier standard than what the NT normally has to go through.
2. If the oral Torah existed, then the evidence has to be that God protected its perfect passing for 1000 years and several conquests of other nations. To write the Torah down meant that Rabbinic Jews believed they could now do a better job of protecting the oral Torah than then believe God.
3. The playing field between the oral Torah and written Torah became completely and totally even when the oral Torah became written. And as the oral Torah has been written longer that it is said to have been oral, a more honest and accurate description would be that it is a 2nd written Torah.
4. The prophets who perfectly passed the oral Torah were the same prophets who wrote the written Torah. Therefore, the written Torah was written by the undisputed expert of the oral Torah. As the prophet's account is the only eyewitness account and the prophet was the undisputed authority of the oral Torah who perfectly passed it to the next generation, his account is the best interpretation for the following reasons:
a. What the prophet wrote WAS an interpretation of the event.
b. The undisputed authority of the oral Torah wrote the written Torah through the lense of the oral Torah. To suggest that anyone of his day could have written one that was more closely aliened with the oral Torah is to discredit the perfect passing of the oral Torah and discredit the written version of the oral Torah.
c. The reason it has to be the best interpretation is because it is the only interpretation.
d. Being the only record of the event, everyone else is dependant on the prophet to make their interpretation of an interpretation.
e. No one involved with a just legal system would ever suggest that the interpretation of an eye witness account is ever better than the eye witness account....especially when the Rabbi lived at least 500 years later and can credit at least part of his/her understanding of the Torah/Tanakh to the prophet that perfectly had past the oral Torah.
When talking about Messianic Judaism, a double standard is applied where if non-Messianic Judaism had to live up to these standards, Messianic Judaism would either proven true or non-Messianic Judaism would be proven false.
In other words, don't expect a fair or informative debate. Instead, expect one that requires you to believe the non-Messianic position by blind faith or be considered anti-Semetic....hardly what scriptural Judaism requires.
Hope this helps
EDIT
Cher says: ***God is one, abstract, incorporeal, not male or female, can not take human form.***
Cher is one who doesn't know if the Torah records actual historic events. But one thing for sure, she doesn't believe what the Torah teaches is Jewish.
Genesis 18 (entire chapter)
Exodus 24: 9 Then went up Moses, and Aaron, Nadab, and Abihu, and seventy of the elders of Israel; 10 and they saw the G-d of Israel; and there was under His feet the like of a paved work of sapphire stone, and the like of the very heaven for clearness. 11 And upon the nobles of the children of Israel He laid not His hand; and they beheld G-d, and did eat and drink.
http://www.hareidi.org/bible/Exodus24.htm#1
Isaiah 6:5
Then said I: Woe is me! for I am undone; because I am a man of unclean lips, and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips; for mine eyes have seen the King, HaShem of hosts. 6 Then flew unto me one of the seraphim, with a glowing stone in his hand, which he had taken with the tongs from off the altar; 7 and he touched my mouth with it, and said: Lo, this hath touched thy lips; and thine iniquity is taken away, and thy sin expiated.
http://www.hareidi.org/bible/Isaiah6.htm#1
Cher, what part confuses you? Your own words or the scriptures that proves your point invalid?
Cher said: ***For 2000 years, Jews have said these things***
And non-Messianic Jews have not heard HaShem or the Spirit of God for 2,500 years. As the Spirit of God is definitely Jewish and the 3rd person of the Trinity, the Spirit of God is removed from all discussions of whether Christianity is monotheistic or Judaism is bi-theistic.
Cher, If you looked at my answer, you will see that I didn't quote you in the body of my Answer. And if you look at the guidelines, I have every right to state the truth about Messianic Judaism as you have the right to state the truth about that which isn't Messianic Judaism. In addition, I have the same right to respond to the criticism of Messianic Judaism as you have the right to respond to the criticism of that which isn't Messianic Judaism. If you don't believe in equal opportunity, then you can create your own blog and ban all who don't agree with the way you think at the time. Or you could quote the Jewish scriptures or the source of your information so you aren't the originator of the ideas.
EDIT
Mark S, you really need to keep reading in 1 Kings from the Jewish scriptures instead of the paraphrased version your Rabbi gives.
1 Kings 19:10 "'I have been very jealous for HaShem, the G-d of hosts; for the children of Israel have forsaken Thy covenant, thrown down Thine altars, and slain Thy prophets with the sword; and I, even I only, am left; and they seek my life, to take it away.' http://www.hareidi.org/bible/1_Kings19.htm
If what the Rabbi said put into practice in Scriptural Judaism, then the nation of Israel would be considered apostate at this point and their title as Jews removed.
***Rabbi Moses Isserles demanded a formal conversion back to Judaism for those who converted out of Judaism*** In the many times Jews are recorded as converting out of Judaism in the Jewish scriptures, what the Rabbi said never was practiced. Again, scriptural Judaism and non-Messianic Judaism conflict and the teaching of the Rabbi is given preference.
Edit
Marcuss, if you are a Messianic Jew, then why would you be offended if I called you one? And if you would be offended by me calling you a Messianic Jew, then why are you offended if I call you a non-Messianic Jew? ...other than you are clueless about what would make you happy or tolerant of those with beliefs that are different than your own.
Being a Reform Jew, I can understand why you would say, ***A real Jew would NEVER insult another Jew this way.*** However, can you prove this to me using the 1000 years of applied Judaism recorded by the Jewish scriptures. Please tell me why the nation of Israel split and could never be reconciled?