Question:
Jesus said in Mat 5:17-19(KJV) – Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets:?
2007-05-21 08:34:47 UTC
I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.... the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
Now, the above Very Very clearly state that one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
There is an incident in John 8:1-11, whereby some Pharisees broght to him an woman who committed adultery and asked him what to do as Moses' law said she should be stoned. Jesus said "He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her." Hearing this, they felt guilty and one by one left the place leaving Jesus alone. When Jesus saw no one there he asked if nobeody condemned her and she replied no. So he let her go off.

Jesus EXPLICITLY said in Mat 5:17-19 that he came not to break but fulfill the law. He even mentioned that not one jot will pass from the law. Then, why did he allow the adultress to go? Did he not break the law?
Please answer based on the situation above. Based on Mat 5:17-19, did Jesus break the law?
23 answers:
The Skeptic
2007-05-21 09:06:10 UTC
Law is a Law. When Jesus said that he came to fulfill the law, he had to. In this case, he difinetly did not fulfill the law.

Christians of course will try and justify his actions and claim that he came to forgive the sinners and his mission is different etc.

But, all these have no validity against the verse in Matthew when he said he came Not to destroy but to Fulfill.

Incidentally, this case also clearly shows that Jesus is just a mortal man like us, but, of course he is exalted in the fact that he is a prophet. And Prophets also make mistakes cos they are humans.
Jesus M
2007-05-21 09:06:24 UTC
Jesus did not break the law. In Mat 5:17 He said Do not think that I came here to destroy the law or the prophecy, I came here not to destroy but to abide with it.

Verse 18, it says:Because I am telling you,until heaven and earth will end, no coma or period will disappear on the law until all the things in the prophecy will be fulfilled.

In verse 19 it says anybody of you who will go against this law and will teach this way to the people, will be called to have very little space in heaven, but for anyone who will obey and teach this is great to the kingdom of heaven.

In relation of John 8:1 to 11. You did not understand what it means. It is not true that the woman is a prostitute. Read verse 6.they are only testing Jesus but Jesus knew this matter so that he said, the first who will throw stone to her has not committed a sin.So that each and everyone of them went away but Jesus and the woman was left.Jesus asked the woman if somebody judge her but the woman answered, Nobody of them Lord. So Jesus said I will not also judge you. It was proven that the woman is not a true prostitute because no one of the men judge her to have done the prostitution.

jtm
Jason B
2007-05-21 09:03:56 UTC
No, because God can't contradict Himself and because He is perfection there is no reason to change.



But because you probably want a better answer than that, here's an opinion. First, you can't read part of an instruction book to put together your kids swingset, then when it falls apart sue the company for not giving you all the directions. In the same way, you can't take one verse of the Bible and use it to contradict another without putting the whole of each situation into context. In the old testament there is talk of a coming new covenant (law, depending on the translation) that will supersede all. Therefore, Jesus being God and the Law, made an addendum that He already knew about, because he knows all. People are unable to keep every law of the old testament and only one man ever has. God sent His amendment and basically said, keep all of the old laws as best you can, but since I know you can't here's how I'm going to forgive you.



Now to put it in the context of the situation. Jesus never said don't stone her. He said only those which have kept all of the laws of God and Moses may stone her. Since everyone has broken at least one of the laws, they left.



Condemning this woman (who by the way is not the same Mary the first responder spoke of, if that is what you believe) is not the outcome He wanted. It says He forgave her and she sinned no more. You must remember that Jesus could have thrown His hands in the air and walked out on all humanity, but chose to deliver those who believe in Him into paradise. How lonely would paradise be if God had none of His children there?
Brian
2007-05-21 08:59:13 UTC
Deut. 22:22-24 tells us that if a person is caught in adultery they are to be stoned. The first question is why didn't they capture any man, but brought forth only the women. From this reading we can see that something suspicious is going on with this event.



Jesus said, "Let the person who has no sin be the first to cast a stone at her." Thus, he did not deny them the right to carry out this prescription of the Law, but he insisted on one condition, namely, that they have not been guilty of this same sin. These men very well committed the sin with her, if not now in the past. Christ required those which were witnesses and not partakers were to case the first stone.



De 17:7 The hands of the witnesses shall be first upon him to put him to death, and afterward the hands of all the people. So thou shalt put the evil away from among you.



Therefore when the so-called witnesses departed, Jesus as the righteous judge threw-out the case.



The civil laws which were given particularly to Israel were discontinued at their destruction in 70 A.D. What Jesus was saying regarding the continuance of the law is that the moral law, summarized in the 10 commandments are perpetual.
2007-05-21 08:52:50 UTC
Good question. We need to remember why Jesus came to this Earth...what his mission was.



This passage shows us that Jesus in dying for our sins brings a new covenant to us: that anyone can be forgiven for their sins through the blood of Christ. The new covenant takes precedence over Mosaic Law.



Remember that the Pharisees had twisted and perverted to Mosaic Law to their own ends, power, and profit. Jesus challenged that, and was a very much a threat to them. This was another attempt on their part to try and trip him up.



Throughout the Gospels, we see many examples of the new covenant. Remember Mathew? He was a tax collector...considered the lowest of the low at the time in human evolutionary terms. Yet, he too was forgiven, and followed Jesus. Any one of us can be forgiven...no matter how bad the deeds. Whether they be tax collector or prostitute.



The other side of the coin to forgiveness is repentance. If we ask for forgiveness and still do nothing to change our ways, what does that say? Repentance means a changing of direction, and living in God's ways rather than those of the Earth.
2007-05-21 08:50:16 UTC
Mat 5:17 ¶ Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. Mat 5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. Mat 5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach [them], the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. Mat 5:20 For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed [the righteousness] of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven. Mat 5:21 ¶ Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment:





YOU have to read all of it.......

Jhn 19:28 After this, Jesus knowing that all things were now accomplished, that the scripture might be fulfilled, saith, I thirst.Jhn 19:29 Now there was set a vessel full of vinegar: and they filled a spunge with vinegar, and put [it] upon hyssop, and put [it] to his mouth. Jhn 19:30 When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.





Law of God , Fulfilled
LottaLou
2007-05-21 08:55:32 UTC
The law was given by Moses. Truth & Grace by Jesus Christ, John1:7.



Jesus said to fulfill the law; love the Lord thy God with all your heart, mind, soul & strength. Love others as yourself. Love & forgive your enemies. And forgiveness is sooo important. Jesus didn't come to condemned the world, but that we might have life and have life more abundantly.



Obviously the Pharasees were self righteous until Jesus wrote in the dust. They also had sin, so knew they couldn't stone the woman. Why didn't they also bring the man?



In the New Covenant, we are not under the law of sin & death but under the Grace of God. Jesus paid the price for our sin. We just need to receive His atonement. When we are born of God, we are made the righteousness of Christ. It is the gift of God.





Jesus, being the Lord, didn't sin against the Father God. Love is actually the root of the 10 commandments. The law was sin & death. Love God, and the blessings to the 1000 generations of those who love God. Hate God and the iniquities go to the 3/4th generation of those who hate God. People were stoned to death for certain sins like adultery. Jesus came and paid the price for our sins. He said that God forgives people for their sins. They need to repent and sin no more.



Jesus is fulfillment of the law. Love, truth & mercy. Jesus provided a way to be restored to God when our sins have separated us from God.
tebone0315
2007-05-21 08:42:42 UTC
Jesus forgave her sin and told her to go sin no more. The Pharisees sins had not been forgiven as of yet and that's why Jesus said, Those without sin cast the first stone. Jesus was the only one present with out sin. The Pharisee's had no right to judge her being they were still in sin themselves
Randy G
2007-05-21 08:40:30 UTC
The law in question called for the death of BOTH the man AND the woman. Why did they bring only the woman? Was the guilty man one of the accusers (kind of hard to commit adultery by yourself)? Ever wonder how they caught her "in the very act", but somehow missed catching the man?



The Law of Moses also has provisions for grace and the forgiveness of sins. I don't think that Jesus violated anything. I think that her accusers violated the law by deliberately setting her up to take a fall. But that's just my guess.



------------------

1Jesus stepped into a boat, crossed over and came to his own town. 2Some men brought to him a paralytic, lying on a mat. When Jesus saw their faith, he said to the paralytic, "Take heart, son; your sins are forgiven."

3At this, some of the teachers of the law said to themselves, "This fellow is blaspheming!"



4Knowing their thoughts, Jesus said, "Why do you entertain evil thoughts in your hearts? 5Which is easier: to say, 'Your sins are forgiven,' or to say, 'Get up and walk'? 6But so that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins...." Then he said to the paralytic, "Get up, take your mat and go home." 7And the man got up and went home. 8When the crowd saw this, they were filled with awe; and they praised God, who had given such authority to men.

~Matthew 9 (NIV)



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"Regius Filius Deus" also makes a good point (below) that the Law of Moses does not allow for a person to be stoned, or otherwise put to death, unless the testimony of two or more witnesses agree. There were no witnesses left, so the law required the woman's release.
Suzanne: YPA
2007-05-21 08:45:22 UTC
This is a bit more complex than most Gentile Christians realize. In order to understand it, you must think as one living at that time.



The point of Jesus' statement ("he that is without sin ...") was based upon Deuteronomy 19:15-21, where a contrast is developed between a true and faithful witness as compared to a false witness. The Pharisees understood this passage to mean that in order for one to truly be a faithful witness, he, himself, could not be guilty of the same sin to which the accused is accused of. Based upon the principle found in verse 21, "life for life, eye for eye, tooth for tooth, hand for hand, foot for foot," and because the subject and object are the same (life-life, eye-eye, tooth-tooth, hand-hand, foot-foot) the Pharisees concluded that the false witness, himself, was guilty of the sin that he was accusing someone else of.



In the John 8:7 incident, Jesus' comment was based on two things: First, what is the nature of a "true" and "faithful" witness? If the witness is guilty of adultery, and he accuses someone else of adultery, can he truly be said to be a "true and faithful witness?" Second, as stated above, the punishment that would have been afflicted on the accused is afflicted on the false witness. If the false witness is only guilty of bearing false witness, then he is only guilty of lying which, by itself, did not carry the death penalty under the Mosaic Law. HOWEVER -- the fact is that the false witness is to be put to death if the original accusation mandated the death penalty. Whether or not their understanding of Deuteronomy is correct, that would have been the mind set of the Pharisees who brought the adulterous woman to Jesus. Jesus merely pointed out to the crowd that, if they were accusing her of adultery, then they were accusing themselves of adultery as well! As a result, they had no moral basis to bring the accusation against her, although she had been caught "in the very act of adultery."
BigOnDrums
2007-05-21 08:49:02 UTC
In fulfilling the law, He gave the people a higher law to follow. A law of forgiveness. The OT people could not handle the higher law so they received eye for an eye, etc.
CHRISTINA
2007-05-21 08:39:29 UTC
The law of God is more important and higher than the laws of men.

Eventually Jesus was convicted and killed by those courts.

He knew the hypocresy of those Pharisees - likely all of them had gone against the law at some point in their lives and just weren't caught.

How can imperfection demand perfection?
2007-05-21 08:42:00 UTC
In order for a woman to be found guilty of adultry, there would have to have been a formal trial complete with witnesses. When all the witnesses left, "Jesus said, "Where are your accusers?" This is important, since if there was no one to accuse, the legal requirement of a trial was not met. Jesus knew that these men were trying to catch Him opposing the law, and He knew that this woman was not going to be given a fair and proper trial; in fact, they had drug her to Him having already decided her guilt.



With no accuser, He was legally correct in freeing her.



Tom
God's Child
2007-05-21 08:41:35 UTC
You answered the question yourself when you quoted the scripture regarding Jesus had come to fulfill the law. He came to die for all of our sins. He paid the price for her sin and all those that stood accusing her were not without sin themselves.
?
2007-05-21 08:43:55 UTC
No. By giving His life as a sacrifice for the sins of mankind, He has the ability to forgive sinners for their transgressions. That is what salvation is all about. He paid the price for her sins. Notice He also told her to go and sin no more.
2007-05-21 08:52:28 UTC
Unquestionably, beyond a shadow of doubt. Until all is fulfilled means until all is fulfilled, and clearly all was not fullfilled. Even if you decide that 'until heaven and earth pass away' is not relevant because Jesus died on the cross, you have to admit that Jesus had NOT died on the cross when he did this. He caused others to sin by teaching them to against the laws given to them by God.



According to biblical standards, Jesus was to be killed for blasphemy. He didn't die for our sins, he died because he was a liar and blasphemer even by his own biblical standards.
Soundtrack to a Nightmare
2007-05-21 08:39:30 UTC
Amazing Grace. Christ's blood fulfills the penalty for ALL who are trusting in it. He was also rebuking the people who were attempting to stone her, because no doubt they could all deserve stoning to death if their deeds were to come to light. Good question!
rangedog
2007-05-21 08:44:00 UTC
John 8:1-11 is not in all older manuscripts, and it's authenticity is questioned.



You'll need another example to illustrate your point.
2007-05-21 08:43:18 UTC
The Bible never said she is an adulteress. In fact there are several part that show that the pharasees were liars.
2007-05-21 08:43:18 UTC
Even Jesus couldn't take the OT seriously.
channiek
2007-05-21 08:39:11 UTC
Jesus is the son of God and to Him was given the power to forgive sins. God Bless
Dee Hat
2007-05-21 08:47:41 UTC
Jesus Christ, who was born into the nation of Israel, told his disciples: “Do not think I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I came, not to destroy, but to fulfill.” (Matthew 5:17)



To Hebrew Christians the apostle Paul wrote: “The Law has a shadow of the good things to come, but not the very substance of the things.” (Hebrews 10:1) If you had been a Hebrew convert to Christianity, how would you have understood these comments? Some members of the early Christian congregation believed that all the hundreds of laws that God gave through Moses, including the Ten Commandments, still applied. But was that the right viewpoint?



Consider these words of Paul to Jews who had become Christians in the province of Galatia: “We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners from the nations, knowing as we do that a man is declared righteous, not due to works of law, but only through faith toward Christ Jesus, even we have put our faith in Christ Jesus, that we may be declared righteous due to faith toward Christ, and not due to works of law, because due to works of law no flesh will be declared righteous.” (Galatians 2:15, 16) Indeed, a righteous standing with God did not depend on perfect obedience to the Mosaic Law, for in the imperfect human state, that was impossible. Paul added: “All those who depend upon works of law are under a curse; for it is written: ‘Cursed is every one that does not continue in all the things written in the scroll of the Law in order to do them.’ . . . Christ by purchase released us from the curse of the Law by becoming a curse instead of us.”—Galatians 3:10-13.



If Jesus’ Jewish followers were no longer under the curse of the Law, were any Christians obligated to observe all the commandments given to Israel? To the Colossians, Paul wrote: “[God] kindly forgave us all our trespasses and blotted out the handwritten document against us, which consisted of decrees and which was in opposition to us; and He has taken it out of the way by nailing it to [Christ’s] torture stake.” (Colossians 2:13, 14) Doubtless, many early Christians needed to adjust their thinking and recognize that they had been “discharged from the Law.” (Romans 7:6) By exercising faith in Jesus’ sacrificial death, which brought an end to the Law and paved the way for the inauguration of the foretold “new covenant,” they had the prospect of gaining a righteous standing with God.—Jeremiah 31:31-34; Romans 10:4.



What They Mean for Us

Does this mean that the Ten Commandments, a basic part of the Law, have lost all meaning for Christians? Certainly not! Although the Ten Words are not legally binding on Christians, these laws continue to offer sound guidelines, as do other commands of the Mosaic Law. For instance, Jesus said that the two greatest commandments are those requiring love of God and neighbor. (Leviticus 19:18; Deuteronomy 6:5; Matthew 22:37-40) In counseling Roman Christians, Paul cited the sixth, seventh, eighth, and tenth commandments, adding: “And whatever other commandment there is, is summed up in this word, namely, ‘You must love your neighbor as yourself.’”—Romans 13:8, 9.



So, then, as part of God’s inspired Word, what purpose do the Ten Commandments serve today? They reveal God’s viewpoint on matters. (2 Timothy 3:16, 17) Consider how they do this.



The first four commandments highlight our responsibilities toward God. (First) He is a God who still exacts exclusive devotion. (Matthew 4:10) (Second) None of his worshipers should use images. (1 John 5:21) (Third) Our use of God’s name should be proper and dignified, never disrespectful. (John 17:26; Romans 10:13) (Fourth) Our whole life should revolve around sacred matters. This enables us to rest, or ‘take a sabbath,’ from a course of self-righteousness.—Hebrews 4:9, 10.



(Fifth) The obedience of children to their parents continues to serve as the cornerstone of family unity, bringing with it God’s blessings. And what a marvelous hope this “first command with a promise” offers! It is not only “that it may go well with you” but also that “you may endure a long time on the earth.” (Ephesians 6:1-3) Now that we are living in “the last days” of this present wicked system, such godly obedience offers young people the prospect of never dying.—2 Timothy 3:1; John 11:26.



Love for our neighbor will prevent us from causing him harm through such wicked deeds as (Sixth) murder, (Seventh) adultery, (Eighth) stealing, and (Ninth) making false statements. (1 John 3:10-12; Hebrews 13:4; Ephesians 4:28; Matthew 5:37; Proverbs 6:16-19) But what of our motives? The (Tenth) commandment, against covetousness, reminds us that God requires that our intentions always be upright in his eyes.—Proverbs 21:2.



What a wealth of meaning we find in the Ten Commandments! Based as they are on divine principles that will never be out-of-date, we should prize them as precious reminders of our obligation to love God and our neighbor.—Matthew 22:37-39.



Jesus’ death brought an end to the Law, including the Ten Commandments given to the Israelites at Mount Sinai
2007-05-21 08:39:56 UTC
Yes.



According to this verse we should follow levitial law and stone people for infractions of the law. It's an interesting contradiction you bring up. Some christians are going to dislike you for it, but I think you are just sincerely puzzled by a troubling passage. My answer is - it is a clear contradiction with no "solution."



If people are angry by your question, they're just speaking out of fear. It's good to question things. If the bible is true, it has nothing to fear from honest inquiry.


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