Both Debbie and bar_enosh have given you fantastic answers to your question that are in complete harmony with the scriptures.
Your asking this question reminds me of the person mentioned in the Bible at Luke 10:25-37 where it reads in part:
"Now, look! a certain man versed in the Law rose up, to TEST him (Jesus) out"
~Luke 10:25
"But, wanting to prove HIMSELF righteous, the man said to Jesus" ~Luke 10:29
Anyway, not one iota of what you stated from the NWT (or any other translation) goes against the FACT that Jesus Christ IS a Mighty God but not Almighty God the Father (Jehovah).
Just for fun, here's a few other scriptures that individuals from the church's of Christendom try to use in their attempt to somehow prove the false claim that Jesus Christ is God the Almighty:
#1)
John 1:1
View the following 3 minute & 17 second educational video that is helping THOUSANDS of sincere hearted people worldwide in understanding the TRUE meaning of what the apostle John was conveying in his Gospel:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IdMV3PIEUco&NR=1
{Real Truth about John 1:1}
#2)
John 8:58
Revised Standard Version, Second Edition (1971) reads:
“Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am [Greek, e·go′ ei·mi′].’”
The New English Bible (1970), King James Version (1611; as printed in 1942), Good News Bible—Today’s English Version (1976), The Jerusalem Bible (1966), Alexander Jones, general editor and The New American Bible, Saint Joseph Edition (1970) ALL read “I am,” some even using capital letters to convey the idea of a title.
Thus they endeavor to connect the expression with Exodus 3:14, where, according to THEIR rendering, God refers to himself by the title “I Am”.
However, in the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures the latter part of John 8:58 reads:
“Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.”
The SAME idea that is in the NWT is conveyed by the wording in The Bible—An American Translation (1935), J. M. Powis Smith and Edgar J. Goodspeed, A New Translation of the Bible (1934), James Moffatt, The New Testament—A Translation in the Language of the People (1937; as printed in 1950), Charles B. Williams, and The Simple English Bible—New Testament, American Edition (1981).
Which rendering AGREES WITH THE CONTEXT? The question of the Jews (verse 57) to which Jesus was replying HAD TO DO WITH AGE, NOT IDENTITY. Jesus’ reply LOGICALLY dealt with his AGE, the length of his existence. Interestingly, no effort is ever made to apply e·go′ ei·mi′ as a title to the holy spirit.
Says A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research, by A. T. Robertson: “The verb [ei·mi′] . . . Sometimes it does express existence as a predicate like any other verb, as in [e·go′ ei·mi′] (Jo. 8:58).”—Nashville, Tenn.; 1934, p. 394.
#3)
Philippians 2:5, 6
King James Version (1611; as printed in 1942) reads:
“Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God.”
(Catholic Challoner-Douay Version (1750; as printed in 1941) has the same wording. The Jerusalem Bible (1966), Alexander Jones, general editor reads: “he did not cling to his equality with God.”)
However, in the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures the latter portion of that passage reads:
“who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure [Greek, har·pag·mon′], namely, that he should be equal to God.”
(Revised Standard Version, Second Edition (1971), The New English Bible (1970), Good News Bible—Today’s English Version (1976) and The New American Bible, Saint Joseph Edition (1970) convey the SAME thought as NWT.)
Which thought agrees WITH THE CONTEXT? Verse 5 counsels CHRISTIANS to IMITATE Christ in the matter here being discussed. Could THEY (Christians) be urged to consider it “not robbery,” but THEIR RIGHT, “to be equal with God”? Surely not!!! However, they CAN imitate one who “gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God.” (New World Translation / Compare Genesis 3:5)
Such a translation also AGREES with Jesus Christ himself, who said: “The Father is GREATER than I.”
—John 14:28.
The Expositor’s Greek Testament says: “We cannot find any passage where [har·pa′zo] or any of its derivatives [including har·pag·mon′] has the sense of ‘holding in possession,’ ‘retaining’. It seems invariably to mean ‘seize,’ ‘snatch violently’. Thus it is not permissible to glide from the true sense ‘grasp at’ into one which is totally different, ‘hold fast.’”—(Grand Rapids, Mich.; 1967), edited by W. Robertson Nicoll, Vol. III, pp. 436, 437.
#4)
1 John 5:7, 8
King James Version (1611; as printed in 1942) reads:
“For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.”
(Catholic Challoner-Douay Version (1750; as printed in 1941) also includes this Trinitarian passage.)
However, the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures DOES NOT include the words “in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness in earth.”
(Revised Standard Version, Second Edition (1971), The New English Bible (1970), Good News Bible—Today’s English Version (1976), The Jerusalem Bible (1966), Alexander Jones, general editor and The New American Bible, Saint Joseph Edition (1970) also LEAVE OUT the Trinitarian passage.)
Regarding this Trinitarian passage, textual critic F. H. A. Scrivener wrote and I quote:
“We need not hesitate to declare our conviction that the disputed words WERE NOT written by St. John: that they were originally brought into Latin copies in Africa from the margin, where they had been placed as a pious and orthodox gloss on ver. 8: that from the Latin they crept into two or three late Greek codices, and thence into the printed Greek text, a place to which they had NO RIGHTFUL CLAIM.”
—A Plain Introduction to the Criticism of the New Testament (Cambridge, 1883, third ed.), p. 654. [Caps mine]
#5)
John 10:30
When saying, “I and the Father are ONE,” did Jesus mean that they were EQUAL? Some Trinitarians say that he did. But at John 17:21, 22, Jesus prayed regarding his followers: “That they may ALL be ONE,” and he added, “that they may be one EVEN AS WE ARE ONE.” He used the same Greek word (hen) for “one” IN ALL THESE INSTANCES. Obviously, Jesus’ disciples DO NOT ALL become part of the Trinity... do they?
But they absolutely DO come to share A ONENESS OF PURPOSE with the Father and the Son, the same sort of oneness that UNITES God and Christ.
#6)
John 20:28
Revised Standard Version, Second Edition (1971) reads:
“Thomas answered him, ‘My Lord and my God!’”
There is no objection to referring to Jesus as “God,” if this is what Thomas had in mind. Such would be IN HARMONY with Jesus’ own quotation from the Psalms in which POWERFUL MEN, JUDGES, were addressed as “gods” (John 10:34, 35, Revised Standard Version; Ps. 82:1-6).
Of course, Christ occupies a position FAR HIGHER than such men. Because of the uniqueness of his position in relation to Jehovah, at John 1:18 (New World Translation) Jesus is referred to as “the only-begotten god” (See also The Emphasised Bible (1897), Joseph B. Rotherham and The Bible in Living English (published in 1972), Steven T. Byington).
Isaiah 9:6 (Revised Standard Version) also prophetically describes Jesus as “Mighty God,” but NOT as the Almighty God. All of this is IN HARMONY with Jesus’ being described as “a god,” or “divine,” at John 1:1 (New World Translation and The Bible—An American Translation).
The CONTEXT helps us to draw the right conclusion from this. Shortly before Jesus’ death, Thomas had heard Jesus’ prayer in which he addressed his Father as “the ONLY true God.” (John 17:3, Revised Standard Version) AFTER Jesus’ resurrection Jesus had sent a message to his apostles, INCLUDING THOMAS, in which he had said: “I am ascending . . . to my God and your God.” (John 20:17, Revised Standard Version) AFTER recording what Thomas said when he actually saw and touched the resurrected Christ, the apostle John stated:
“These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name.” (John 20:31, Revised Standard Version) So, if anyone has concluded from Thomas’ exclamation that Jesus is himself “the only true God” or that Jesus is a Trinitarian “God the Son,” he needs to CAREFULLY LOOK AGAIN at what Jesus himself said (vs. 17) and at the CONCLUSION that is CLEARLY STATED by the apostle John (vs. 31).
Jesus is not God Almighty, never has been, never will be. At John 17:3, Jesus addresses the Father as “the only true God”; so, Jesus as “a god” merely reflects his Father’s divine qualities as Hebrews 1:3 shows. There is ONLY one true ALMIGHTY GOD and that is Jehovah... no one else, not Jesus Christ or anyone or anything. Jesus Christ being called "a god" (hopefully you learned something from the John 1:1 video) does not make him a FALSE god, that's ridiculous (and is getting old... try using something else please), it simply means that he is NOT the one true ALMIGHTY God. Capeesh? None of this is hard to understand? Dude, just let Jehovah himself sort it out in the end if whether or not YOUR beliefs about him are correct OR his Witnesses.
http://www.watchtower.org/e/ti/index.htm?article=article_04.htm
{Should You Believe in the Trinity?}
;-)
Ciao