Question:
Is there a scriptural basis for the idea that the Virgin Mary ascended into Heaven, as opposed to dying?
?
2008-01-20 12:59:43 UTC
I have heard that some Churches teach that Mary did not die a normal death on Earth. But rather, she ascended into Heaven?

Does the Bible back up this idea?

If so, where is this found in the Bible?

Thanks.
Twelve answers:
anonymous
2008-01-20 13:07:05 UTC
First of all, I am only going to look at Mary from the Catholic Encyclopedia. From Jesus' death & resurrection on:



QUOTE

Mary's perfect sanctity

Some few patristic writers expressed their doubts as to the presence of minor moral defects in Our Blessed Lady. [77] St. Basil, e.g., suggests that Mary yielded to doubt on hearing the words of holy Simeon and on witnessing the crucifixion. [78] St. John Chrysostom is of opinion that Mary would have felt fear and trouble, unless the angel had explained the mystery of the Incarnation to her, and that she showed some vainglory at the marriage feast in Cana and on visiting her Son during His public life together with the brothers of the Lord. [79] St. Cyril of Alexandria [80] speaks of Mary's doubt and discouragement at the foot of the cross. But these Greek writers cannot be said to express an Apostolic tradition, when they express their private and singular opinions. Scripture and tradition agree in ascribing to Mary the greatest personal sanctity; She is conceived without the stain of original sin; she shows the greatest humility and patience in her daily life (Luke 1:38, 48); she exhibits an heroic patience under the most trying circumstances (Luke 2:7, 35, 48; John 19:25-27). When there is question of sin, Mary must always be excepted. [81] Mary's complete exemption from actual sin is confirmed by the Council of Trent (Session VI, Canon 23): "If any one say that man once justified can during his whole life avoid all sins, even venial ones, as the Church holds that the Blessed Virgin did by special privilege of God, let him be anathema." Theologians assert that Mary was impeccable, not by the essential perfection of her nature, but by a special Divine privilege. Moreover, the Fathers, at least since the fifth century, almost unanimously maintain that the Blessed Virgin never experienced the motions of concupiscence.







Let's start with this:





QUOTE

When there is question of sin, Mary must always be excepted. [81] Mary's complete exemption from actual sin is confirmed by the Council of Trent (Session VI, Canon 23): "If any one say that man once justified can during his whole life avoid all sins, even venial ones, as the Church holds that the Blessed Virgin did by special privilege of God, let him be anathema." Theologians assert that Mary was impeccable, not by the essential perfection of her nature, but by a special Divine privilege. Moreover, the Fathers, at least since the fifth century, almost unanimously maintain that the Blessed Virgin never experienced the motions of concupiscence.







Mary was impeccable?



I don't think so! Not according to what Scripture says:



Romans 3:9-11 (New International Version)



9What shall we conclude then? Are we any better[a]? Not at all! We have already made the charge that Jews and Gentiles alike are all under sin. 10As it is written:

"There is no one righteous, not even one;

11there is no one who understands,

no one who seeks God.



How can ANYONE say something like this:





QUOTE

Moreover, the Fathers, at least since the fifth century, almost unanimously maintain that the Blessed Virgin never experienced the motions of concupiscence.







concupiscence \kon-KYOO-puh-suhn(t)s; kuhn-\, noun:

Strong desire, especially sexual desire; lust



Mary never had any Sexual desires?



She wouldn't be human if she didn't!



But we can't help but read more into this than just sexual desises. Can anyone honestly say that this isn't reffering to ALL sinful thoughts?



Mary would have to be perfect!



This is blasphemy of the worst kind!



There is, was, & only will be ONE PEREFCT PERSON-CHRIST JESUS!



Okay, let's continue:





QUOTE

Apocalypse 12:1-6

In the Apocalypse (12:1-16) occurs a passage singularly applicable to Our Blessed Mother:





And a great sign appeared in heaven: A woman clothed with the sun, and the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars; and being with child, she cried travailing in birth, and was in pain to be delivered. And there was seen another sign in heaven: and behold a great red dragon, having seven heads, and ten horns, and on his heads seven diadems; and his tail drew the third part of the stars of heaven; and cast them to the earth; and the dragon stood before the woman who was ready to be delivered; that when she should be delivered, he might devour her son. And she brought forth a man child, who was to rule all nations with an iron rod; and her son was taken up to God, and to his throne. And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she had a place prepared by God, that there they should feed her a thousand two hundred sixty days.

The applicability of this passage to Mary is based on the following considerations:



At least part of the verses refer to the mother whose son is to rule all the nations with a rod of iron; according to Psalm 2:9, this is the Son of God, Jesus Christ, Whose mother is Mary.

It was Mary's son that "was taken up to God, and to his throne" at the time of His Ascension into heaven.

The dragon, or the devil of the earthly paradise (cf. Apocalypse 12:9; 20:2), endeavoured to devour Mary's Son from the first moments of His birth, by stirring up the jealousy of Herod and, later on, the enmities of the Jews.

Owing to her unspeakable privileges, Mary may well be described as "clothed with the sun, and the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars".

It is true that commentators generally understand the whole passage as applying literally to the Church, and that part of the verses is better suited to the Church than to Mary. But it must be kept in mind that Mary is both a figure of the Church, and its most prominent member. What is said of the Church, is in its own way true of Mary. Hence the passage of the Apocalypse (12:5-6) does not refer to Mary merely by way of accommodation [108], but applies to her in a truly literal sense which appears to be partly limited to her, and partly extended to the whole Church. Mary's relation to the Church is well summed up in the expression "collum corporis mystici" applied to Our Lady by St. Bernardin of Siena. [109]

Cardinal Newman [110] considers two difficulties against the foregoing interpretation of the vision of the woman and child: first, it is said to be poorly supported by the Fathers; secondly, it is an anachronism to ascribe such a picture of the Madonna to the apostolic age. As to the first exception, the eminent writer says:





Christians have never gone to Scripture for proof of their doctrines, till there was actual need, from the pressure of controversy; if in those times the Blessed Virgin's dignity was unchallenged on all hands, as a matter of doctrine, Scripture, as far as its argumentative matter was concerned, was likely to remain a sealed book to them.

After developing this answer at length, the cardinal continues:





As to the second objection which I have supposed, so far from allowing it, I consider that it is built upon a mere imaginary fact, and that the truth of the matter lies in the very contrary direction. The Virgin and Child is not a mere modern idea; on the contrary, it is represented again and again, as every visitor to Rome is aware, in the paintings of the Catacombs. Mary is there drawn with the Divine Infant in her lap, she with hands extended in prayer, he with his hand in the attitude of blessing.







Represented in paintings?



Is THIS how a person believes? With what they see in a painting?



I can't believe how utterly ludricrous this sounds!!



Also:



Do you see what is happening here, when, catholics ascribe the characteristics, to Mary, that are listed here? They are putting her on EQUAL STANDING WITH CHRIST!



Try telling me that this is NOT blasphemy of the worst kind!



Now, let's look at the doctine of Mary's "assumption"





QUOTE

The Feast of the Assumption

The Feast of the Assumption of the Blessed Virgin Mary, 15 August; also called in old liturgical books Pausatio, Nativitas (for heaven), Mors, Depositio, Dormitio S. Mariae.



This feast has a double object: (1) the happy departure of Mary from this life; (2) the assumption of her body into heaven. It is the principal feast of the Blessed Virgin.



THE FACT OF THE ASSUMPTION

Regarding the day, year, and manner of Our Lady's death, nothing certain is known. The earliest known literary reference to the Assumption is found in the Greek work De Obitu S. Dominae. Catholic faith, however, has always derived our knowledge of the mystery from Apostolic Tradition. Epiphanius (d. 403) acknowledged that he knew nothing definite about it (Haer., lxxix, 11). The dates assigned for it vary between three and fifteen years after Christ's Ascension. Two cities claim to be the place of her departure: Jerusalem and Ephesus. Common consent favours Jerusalem, where her tomb is shown; but some argue in favour of Ephesus. The first six centuries did not know of the tomb of Mary at Jerusalem.



The belief in the corporeal assumption of Mary is founded on the apocryphal treatise De Obitu S. Dominae, bearing the name of St. John, which belongs however to the fourth or fifth century. It is also found in the book De Transitu Virginis, falsely ascribed to St. Melito of Sardis, and in a spurious letter attributed to St. Denis the Areopagite. If we consult genuine writings in the East, it is mentioned in the sermons of St. Andrew of Crete, St. John Damascene, St. Modestus of Jerusalem and others. In the West, St. Gregory of Tours (De gloria mart., I, iv) mentions it first. The sermons of St. Jerome and St. Augustine for this feast, however, are spurious. St. John of Damascus (P. G., I, 96) thus formulates the tradition of the Church of Jerusalem:





St. Juvenal, Bishop of Jerusalem, at the Council of Chalcedon (451), made known to the Emperor Marcian and Pulcheria, who wished to possess the body of the Mother of God, that Mary died in the presence of all the Apostles, but that her tomb, when opened, upon the request of St. Thomas, was found empty; wherefrom the Apostles concluded that the body was taken up to heaven.







First, let's look at this:





QUOTE

THE FACT OF THE ASSUMPTION

Regarding the day, year, and manner of Our Lady's death, nothing certain is known. The earliest known literary reference to the Assumption is found in the Greek work De Obitu S. Dominae. Catholic faith, however, has always derived our knowledge of the mystery from Apostolic Tradition. Epiphanius (d. 403) acknowledged that he knew nothing definite about it (Haer., lxxix, 11). The dates assigned for it vary between three and fifteen years after Christ's Ascension. Two cities claim to be the place of her departure: Jerusalem and Ephesus. Common consent favours Jerusalem, where her tomb is shown; but some argue in favour of Ephesus. The first six centuries did not know of the tomb of Mary at Jerusalem.







Even theologians don't know where she was buried!



Then we have this:





QUOTE

St. Juvenal, Bishop of Jerusalem, at the Council of Chalcedon (451), made known to the Emperor Marcian and Pulcheria, who wished to possess the body of the Mother of God, that Mary died in the presence of all the Apostles, but that her tomb, when opened, upon the request of St. Thomas, was found empty; wherefrom the Apostles concluded that the body was taken up to heaven.







If they didn't know where Mary was buried, how do they even know that this was the right grave? Was there ANY EVIDENCE, that the grave hadn't been robbed?



Have you noticed throughout these articles, that the word "tradiion" is used a great deal?



That's what the Catholic Church runs by-traditions, not Biblical fact, which we have in God's word, the BIBLE!



Then we have this:





QUOTE

Scripture and tradition agree in ascribing to Mary the greatest personal sanctity; She is conceived without the stain of original sin..........







Excuse me????????????????



Concieved with out the stain of original sin?



That is Scripturally impossible.



Mary was born of human parents! There is no way that she COULDN'T HAVE THE STAIN OF ORIGINAL SIN!



Even King David recognized this fact:



[I]Psalm 51:5 (New International Version)



Surely I was sinful at birth,

sinful from the time my mother conceived me.



If she was conceived with out sin, she would be perfect, & that is BLASPHEMY!



There is only ONE person that was concieved WITHOUT the stain of original sin-Christ Jesus!





Now, many will say that I am mocking Mary.



No I am NOT!



I an only going by what the Bible & ONLY the Bible says, because THAT is the ONLY truth that we CAN trust!



Here are the BIBLICAL



Facts about Mary:



1. She was a virgin-Luke 1:27



2. She was the wife of Joseph-Matthew 1:24



3. She was righteous before God-Luke 1:30



4. She was the mother of Jesus-Luke 1:35



Yes, Mary SHOULD be respected.



But while she holds a special place in Biblical Christianity, she was a mortal woman who God used.



She is NOT to be worshiped, prayed to, of in ANY WAY, be placed any higher than any other MORTAL person.
anonymous
2016-04-06 08:48:42 UTC
It is not in the Bible per se but as you might say suggested in Revelation. I just love the if it's not in the Bible it must not be true bunch. Pray tell me where is the sinners Prayer commanded in the Bible or the Altar call spoken of in the Bible.Or tell me where it says to hold revival; services. The point is there assumptions are purely ridiculous. There was no Bible then outside of old testament Writings,but there were literally dozens if not hundreds of various beliefs because of the hundreds of false letters floating around. And that is in the epistles where they are warning and condemning false teachers.John even says in his Gospel at the end that not all Jesus done and said was recorded/written down. So Oral Tradition was from the very beginning until around the yr 393AD When a council was held to decide which writings were worthy and pure and this took a couple of yrs at least to work out.You might be interested in reading how we got the Bible and much of what you believe about it will mature . I mean lets be realistic about all this even with all the technological communication advances we have made we still can not tell you every word and action of a former President and must fill in the missing info from the people that worked with him. Not much different from the time of Christ and the Apostles now is it? So hopefully you understand that the assumption of Mary was a Oral Tradition passed down by the Apostles and there Disciples and so forth.
OPM
2008-01-20 13:33:09 UTC
I am an atheist, but I happen to know the answer to this question.



There are a couple things in early Christian thinking to remember when discussing this. First, the bible was not considered the entirety of "truth" until the sixteenth century. Second, the books we now call the bible were largely written before Mary died, or alternatively was assumed into Heaven.



The bible does at least partly back up this idea. Luke has the Angel address Mary with the word "kecharitomene," which is the past perfect participle of charitoo. This is deeply important because for it to be correct Mary must be completely without any touch of original sin, or any other subsequent sin. She must be as sinless as Eve prior to eating the forbidden fruit. Luke has this sinless nature announced before Jesus is conceived and makes it clear by using the past perfect form. He further goes to pains to point out that the Spirit did not enter John the Forerunner until after conception. John received the Spirit, like the Prophets by grace. Mary possess and lives in God by her nature.



Genesis points out that death is due to sin, therefore Mary cannot die, at least according to Luke.



Further, if you go to Revelations, you see Mary as Queen of Heaven, symbolically. Others view this imagery of the woman giving birth as the Church, but that misses out on an important fact of Jewish thinking. The Queen of Israel was never the wife of the King but rather the mother of the King. Kings had multiple wives, a woman only became queen when her child inherited the throne. This was common throughout the Levant. If Jesus was the Jewish King, then Mary was the Queen by Jewish definition. Look at Sheba and Solomon and other kings for confirmation.



Further the Queen played a very specific intercessory role in Jewish life. Kings were expected, in honoring their mother, to do what their mother's told them to do. Mothers were expected not to tell there sons to do things that would place them in a bad position, but you can find Old Testament examples of people approaching the Queen in order to accomplish things rather than the King who might not be able for a variety of reasons to grant the request. You can see this play out in the Wedding Feast at Cana where Mary instructs the Son to do things even though it is improper as it is not his time.



Finally, throughout the early Christian world the idea of the Dormition/Assumption or Resurrection of Mary appears everywhere. When the Portuguese arrived in India to Christianize it in the sixteenth century they found Christians already there saying the Mass just as the apostle Thomas left it. According to them, after the Resurrection of Mary she appeared to Thomas and told him to go East and Christianize the world. He made it to India. His tomb is in Kerala I believe. When the Portuguese arrived they were told Mary sent Thomas there. The Mass appeared largely unchanged since early Christianity and was highly similar to the Roman Mass.



So, even though Indian Christianity had been out of touch with the rest of Christianity for over 1000 years it was teaching the same things the Catholic and Orthodox Churches had been teaching. Each little ancient community has a different variant of the story, but the common theme is the ascent of Mary into Heaven at the end of her life.
Mom
2008-01-20 13:11:52 UTC
The bible doesn't mention her death at all. It's based on the Catholic doctrine that Mary must have been born without original sin on her soul in order to be worthy of carrying Jesus (this is the real meaning of the Immaculate Conception - Mary's sinlessness). So as a result, she wouldn't DIE (that is Adam's curse, remember). Therefore, she must have bodily ascended directly to Heaven.



Interesting myth.
?
2008-01-20 13:45:52 UTC
No one has ascended to Heaven but He who came down from Heaven, that is, the Son of Man who is in Heaven (John 3:13)

----------

This is Biblical proof that Mary did not ascend to Heaven. And although there is no mention of how or when Mary died, you can believe that she is not in Heaven, but dead in her tomb awaiting the 2nd coming of our Lord.



God Bless You!

-------------

PS: OPM you should read what Scripture really says about the "Queen of Heaven" the Lord Hated her worship.



(Jeremiah 7:18; 45:17,18,19,25) The Queen of Heaven is the moon Ashtoreth or Astarte to whom worshiped as Hebrew women offered cakes in the streets of Jerusalem.



Jeremiah 7:18

The children gather wood, the fathers kindle the fire, and the women knead dough, to make cakes for the queen of heaven; and they pour out drink offerings to other gods, that they may provoke Me to anger.



Jeremiah 44:27

For I will watch over you to bring you disaster and not good. YOU WILL SUFFER WAR AND FAMINE UNTIL ALL OF YOU ARE DEAD.



God Bless You!
anonymous
2008-01-20 13:18:52 UTC
The Catholic Church teaches she was ASSUMED into Heaven, but not whether or not she died first. The Orthodox also teach she was assumed. It is Church Tradition, and not contrary to Scripture.
♥Islam~Blessings-Peace(ARABIC)♥
2008-01-20 13:23:20 UTC
Mary, was a very modest person, she was very religious, and wore a veil, she prayed to Allah(god), and he granted her Isas (Jesus). Mary was not divine, and she died as all other humans died, thus she went to heaven, because of what she beleived in, God, thus signifys that Jesus is not god, he is a Messiah, and a Prophet.
Karl P
2008-01-20 13:04:39 UTC
The Holy Bible does NOT say that at all. She died the same way as all the rest of the "sinners saved by grace" did.
Averell A
2008-01-20 13:03:40 UTC
The assumption of Mary is a later theological development.
Gentle Spirit
2008-01-20 13:10:24 UTC
"You are the glory of Jerusalem... you are the splendid boast of our people... GOD is pleased with what you have wroght. may be be blessed by the Lord Almighty forever and ever. (Judith 15:9-10



Grace of a Happy Death...
SkyKing
2008-01-20 13:10:28 UTC
what do scriptural know, they just read from some writing that happen about 2000 years ago....
paula r
2008-01-20 13:04:14 UTC
No, she died like everyone else.


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