No, not directly.
The moral system that says, "everything is relative, all morality is subjective, and our decisions are just the result of chemicals," might be the root cause of acceptance of sexual depravity. If, at some point for some reason, society begins to question the age of consent or the rights of a child, then there is no objective moral reason not to change the laws under this way of thinking. The ultimate moral conclusion of such a view is that there is no such thing as right and wrong that applies to two people. Each person decides for himself. There is no room in that system for one person to tell another that their actions are wrong. Eventually, someone with power will point out how arbitrary the number "18" is, and people will question their beliefs. I hope that if that happens, people in my country have enough morality left to stand firm.
It seems like those against both pedophilia and objective morality appeal to existing laws as the basis for their morals. I can only assume that if those laws were repealed or not yet in place that pedophilia would be ok by them, since no objective reason is given. There are places in the world where it is normal to sell children for sexual labor. There are places where there are no laws, yet we still cringe when we hear of pregnant 10 year olds in those places. Why? I would say because a child has inherent, objective, irrevocable dignity, humanity, and moral worth. Belief in that worth is what keeps our current laws protecting children in place. That is what put the laws there in the first place.
Edit: I'm not "slandering gay people." I'm referring only to the moral system that is commonly used to justify all behavior without objectivity. I was quite specific that homosexuality does not lead directly to pedophilia, but that similar reasoning is often used to justify both. Of course every practicing homosexual does not necessarily adhere to the same morality, but many of their supporters strongly believe in strictly subjective morality. Desire has been given a very prominent position in America.
If it makes you feel better, I think it is the same line of reasoning that leads to socially acceptable promiscuity and divorce amongst heterosexuals. I think it's even used to justify debilitating drug use. It is the "I feel it, therefore it is right," morality that I blame, not necessarily practicing homosexuals.
Edit again: Perhaps you are just accusing "?" of slander, in which case I see what you mean. The two conditions of homosexuality and pedophilia bear only some correlation and do not always go hand in hand.
However, there is something to be said for the 25:1 ratio of hetero- to homo-sexuals in the population, but a 2:1 rate of female to male victims of child molestation. Offenders identify as homosexual 1/12 times. Do what you will with the data, but there is a relationship there. I tend to give the benefit of the doubt to those who say the relationship is indirect. If that is the case, they likely share a cause. I would identify that cause as a combination of moral belief, prior abuse, mental and developmental disorder, pornographic exposure, and socialization.