Why was God's name removed from the King James Version of the Bible?

Question

It didn't appear often In the earlier versions, but it was there....

Exd 6:3 - And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by [the name of] God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.
King James Version 1611, 1769

"I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob, as God Almighty, but by My name LORD I was not known to them.
Footnote:
Hebrew YHWH, traditionally Jehovah
New King James Version © 1982 Thomas Nelson

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Again ...
KJV - Psa 83:18 - That [men] may know that thou, whose name alone [is] JEHOVAH, [art] the most high over all the earth.
King James Version 1611, 1769


NKJV - Psa 83:18 - That they may know that You, whose name alone is the LORD, Are the Most High over all the earth.
New King James Version © 1982 Thomas Nelson

Answer 1

I have a King James bible that was given to my Great Grandmother in 1941 and another that was given to my mom in 1958. The 1941 version has Jehovah's name in it 4 times and the one from 1958 only 3 times.

As Jehovah's Witnesses started to make God's name known more publicly, some clergy became afraid that they would loose more of their parishioners to our organization if they continued to use God's name in there sermons.

So many newer translations take God's name out while the clergy class refused to use it under the pretense that the Jews before Jesus day stopped using the divine mane, so why should they?

Jesus used Jehovah's name and restored Jehovah's name to it's time honored place among his true followers.

Answer 2

There has always been an attempt to erase God's personal name from Bibles and literature throughout history. But interestingly his name has been preserved at least in a small part in Bibles so through time people could still know it. These modern days with the New World Translation which puts God's name Jehovah to the fore throughout the Bible people now know Jehovah's name by the spread of the preaching of the good news of the kingdom worldwide. Very few people can say that they have not heard the name Jehovah.

Answer 3

Okay, first the main question, which Old Timer Too did a very good job of answering very briefly. Your concern appears to be the change from the King James Version (KJV) to the New King James Version (NKJV). In brief, the NKJV adopts the same practice as the KJV - namely, translating the tetragrammaton as "Lord" in small caps. (The tetragrammaton is the four-lettered name of God in Hebrew.) However, *unlike* the KJV, the NKJV does this *consistently*. In other words, the tetragrammaton (when appearing alone) is *always* translated as "Lord" in the NKJV, but is *not* always translated in this manner in the KJV. If I remember correctly, the KJV fails to translate the tetragrammaton as "Lord" 4 times out of the several hundred times that word appears in the Old Testament. This is actually a *flaw* in the KJV - it demonstrates inconsistent translation practices.



The more important question - though not really the one you are asking - is, "why is the tetragrammaton translated as 'Lord' ". This is a Jewish tradition which displays a deep reverence for the name of God. Even before Jesus' time, the Septuagint (LXX) - a Greek translation of Hebrew scriptures - frequently used the phrase "the lord" in place of the tetragrammaton. Similarly, the gospels record Jesus using the same term to refer to God. It became a common Jewish practice, after vowels were invented for Hebrew, to insert the vowels for the phrase "the lord" (Hebrew "adonai") above the letters of the tetragrammaton. Thus, when reading, a reader would *see* the tetragrammaton, but would be reminded to *speak* the word for "the lord", "adonai".



This practice caused Christian translators to mistakenly combine these two words and form the medieval name "Jehovah", (Latin Iehouah, which was anglicized to Jehovah). This is almost certainly *not* a proper transliteration of the tetragrammaton, as the "J" sound is considered a very unlikely pronunciation. Normally, the tetragrammaton is transliterated into English as "Yahweh" or, less commonly, "Yahveh", but the true pronunciation (because of the ancient Hebrew lack of vowels) remains conjectural.



SO, translating the tetragrammaton as "the lord" or (in modern English) "Lord" in small caps is a tradition dating back to *before Jesus*. *This* is why most modern English translations adopt this practice - because it is the tradition practiced not only by the original KJV, but by nearly all English translations before or since, as well, and *further*, most translations in most languages all the way back to early Greek translations before the time of Christ!



To the best of my knowledge, only the Jerusalem Bible and the New Jerusalem Bible consistently transliterate the tetragrammaton (using "Yahweh") throughout. Nearly all other modern translations consistently use the traditional "Lord" (small caps). The New World Translation uses "Jehovah", but replaces the phrase "the lord" with "Jehovah" in many locations (in the New Testament) in which there are no original manuscripts using the word "Jehovah". However, the reasons for these replacements are thoroughly documented in the appendices of that bible.



Further considerations about using "Lord" as a translation for the tetragrammaton can be found here

http://jimpettis.com/bibles/lord.htm



and here

http://www.bible-reviews.com/accuracytetragrammaton.html



I hope this helps.



Jim

Answer 4

Even the revered King James Authorized Version is in fact a flawed translation. Some people actually believe it is the one, true, and only Holy Bible and sadly it is not. It has been edited, translated and changed far more times than people realize. In the beginning the KJV actually had all 73 books found in the Catholic Douay version. Seven OT books were later removed. The changes go on and on.

Answer 5

In the preface to the American Standard Version, that is, the version of the King James revised by the English and American revision committees around the turn of the century, the revisers "were brought to a unanimous decision that a Jewish superstition, which regarded the Divine Name as too sacred to be uttered, ought no longer to dominate" in that revision.



The fact that it is merely "a Jewish superstition" is made evident by the fact that such faithful and exemplary servants of God as Abraham, Moses, David and all the prophets used God's name regularly. Even Boaz, in the book of Ruth, is said to have greeted his workers, "YHVH be with you." He obviously didn't think it was "so sacred it should not be uttered," or even that it should only be used in the temple, in worship, or any of that nonsense.



Rather than treat God's name as holy, the "Jewish superstition" has caused them to treat God's name as an abomination, because that is how God himself commanded to treat the names of the worthless, false gods of the nations around them:



"13 “And YOU are to be on your guard respecting all that I have said to YOU; and YOU must not mention the name of other gods. It should not be heard upon your mouth." (Exodus 23:13)



Best regards,

Mike

Answer 6

Jehovah is not the name of the Jewish G-d.



No Jew EVER refers to G-d by either that name, or 'yahweh'.



Both are mistranslations of the tetragrammatron, YHVH, the sacred name of G-d that we cannot and must not say aloud. Early theologians added vowels and ended up with a variety of 'names'. None of them are correct.



Jews refer to G-d as Adonai, 'lord'. Also 'Hashem' - the name, and 'Hamakom' - the place.





TO THE ASKER



The Hebrew in the Tanakh can be, and is, correctly translated, just not in the 'old testament'.



But there certainly ARE accurate translations of the Tanakh available.



YHVH is the ONE name, the most holy name; that's why we never speak it aloud and why it cannot BE spoken aloud.





MIKE M



- you have totally misunderstood. And you have also MISrepresented Jewish tradition and belief regarding the name of G-d. Perhaps in future you'd like to get your facts straight before trying to define a religious belief that you don't actually understand in the first place.

Answer 7

It wasn't removed. It was translated as the "Lord God."



You cited one of the few places where, in the original KJV, it was simply left in its original state (with vowels added for pronunciation purposes).



In the New KJV, it appears to have been made consistent with the rest of the work and instead of using "Lord God," they used the word "Lord."

Answer 8

As I see it, when Brother Russel began his broadcasting of the truth, he shocked and irritated Christendom, and brought Jehovah's name into the light they were not familiar with. They attempted to do the devils work and tried to discredit him.

Look at all the versions given out by preachers promoting their religion............Friend, it's the devils doing clear and simple!



A faithful brother! Agape!

Answer 9

It was removed by Trinitarians who found it hard to prove their teachings with it in the way yes one of the Ten Commendments says that you SHOULDN'T USE HIS NAME IN A WORTHLESS WAY. BUT THE FACT THAT IT WAS IN THE BIBLE 7247 TIMES ` Shows that he must have wanted it to be used.



The Jews became superstious & didn't want to use it, Christendom wanted to teach the trinity doctrine so both of them are wrong



The KJV is a very flawed bible go to this link & see for yourself

http://www.pronetisp.net/~diana/wcm.html lists of oblselete words of KJ

http://www.pronetisp.net/~diana/wcm.html (word changes in KJ Bible)

http://www.av1611.org/nkjv.html changes from KJ to NKJ

Answer 10

Because they want to put Jesus as God in stead of Jehovah. If anyone would look in any dictionary of encyclopedia they would see what gods name is. but they are to closed minded to see

Answer 11

Gods name is " I Am"