Well - I would think this obvious, but I will point it out anyway....
1) Where in the Bible does it say that the Bible is an eternal book
It does not.
2) that it can never be changed
It does not.
3) that Jesus' name is a name above all names
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=php%202:5-9&multilayout=cols&version1=49&version2=9
4) and can not be mistranslated
Normal translation practice is to *never* translate a name, and that is true of Jesus' name. Jesus' name translated means (roughly) "Yahweh Saves".
5) I'm curious to ask, because I believe in the teaching of Christ as it was depicted back in the old ways which was written before the first English translation ever came around. I believe in God, Yeshua, the Watchers, and Nephilim, and all the stuff that was said in the original Bible, not what we have in our Bibles today.
You claim to follow two conflicting things here. With extremely few exceptions, modern English Bibles are translations of the original language Bible Scriptures performed by accredited experts in the field of Biblical languages. There has never been a superior translation of the Bible than is available in English today unless, perhaps, it is the Nova Vulgata (those Roman Catholic scholars really know their ancient languages, and they have heaps of appropriately-accredited and very experienced scholars in the Roman Catholic Church).
"the Watchers" appears in no original language Biblical Scripture, nor has that term - to the best of my admittedly limited knowledge - ever appeared in any translation of the Bible.
"nephilim" is commonly included in modern, scholarly English translations of the Bible.
The original Bible - the first book know AS "the Bible" - was the Latin Vulgate of 405 C.E. It has been translated into English (Douay-Rheims; Knox Bible), with the addition only of the Book of Baruch (and NO omissions), and it's meaning is, practically speaking, identical to that of modern Bibles.
6) I know the books are vastly different from then, and now.
There has NEVER been less difference. The scholarly translations of modern times are the most accurate in history - that is, they are closer than any historical translation. How is it that you "know" this?
7) I've read and I know that Jesus' name, Yeshua, only came about because of mistranslations
Neither "Yeshua" or "Jesus" are translations of any sort - mis- or otherwise.
8) and because the "Y" in Hebrew is closely similar to the "J" in English
Nor was Hebrew commonly spoken in Jesus' time. However, it is true that the "J" **sound** was almost certainly not used in first century Greek, Aramaic or Hebrew.
9) I've came to the realization that books of the Bible have been taken out
This is not something that, logically, someone can "realize". It is only something that you can discover (or not) by researching the topic. For a book to have been taken out of the Bible, it must first have been included in the Bible.
10) that passages have been re-written
Again: this is not something that can be realized, only discovered. Modern accredited Biblical scholars have gone to almost excruciating lengths to uncover altered passages in the original language texts and have been very successful at doing so. I'm pretty certain - totally convinced, in fact - that they have done so much more capably than you are capable of doing. Very nearly ALL modern, scholarly translations make use of source texts which are the result of that excruciatingly thorough (and ongoing) scholarship to expose alterations to Biblical passages. The closest thing to an unaltered Biblical translation available today is a modern, scholarly translation.
11) I know certain verses have been deliberately changed, in order to provoke hate and dislike among people who this religion is supposed to love and cherish.
How do you "know" this? Please provide an example of such a verse and the linguistic analysis that proves that the verse has not been properly translated in a modern, scholarly translation taken from the critical text. Please also provide the academic credentials of the person who has performed this linguistic analysis.
OR - expect that no one reading this will believe you except for those who already agree with you.
12) why is it Christianity has became corrupt
That's like asking, "why has the world become corrupt?" In comparison to what? What do you consider a corruption that is common to all of Christianity? I believe that Christianity as a whole is *not* corrupt - though, of course, there are individual Christians who are corrupt.
13) why is it people believe (The modern version
I'm not certain to which particular modern version you refer, but they believe for the very same reason people believed the ancient version - because it is the most linguistically accurate translation available at the time.
14) why is it when ever I say, have proof, and bring proof to people about how the biblical text has been changed, and what they believe is not what was originally said, why is it I'm just put down as being against God?
Not having seen any such proof here, I cannot say. Some people react emotionally when unable to respond reasonably to support their position. However, considering the number of clear and obvious errors you have included here, I suspect that you have not actually been able to provide proof of this claim.
15) Why has modern Christianity became nothing more then a festering pool of bigotry?
The irony of this statement should astound you. I'm sure that it will astound any reader.
Jim, http://www.bible-reviews.com/