Question:
John 14:6 says) Jesus saith unto him,I am the way,and the truth,and the life: no one cometh unto the Father, but by me. (American Standard)?
fixerken
2017-02-06 04:58:51 UTC
If Jesus is God how is it to get to God we have to do it by means of Jesus? Chapter 14 verse 16 says) And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may be with you for ever,
If Jesus is God why does he pray to his Father to send the Comforter (verse 17 says Spirit instead of Comforter) Being God Jesus could just send Holy Spirit to his followers why does he have to ask his Father to do it?
Verse 21 says) He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself unto him.
If we love Jesus we will be loved by Jesus’ Father so why should we be concerned weather or not we are loved by Jesus’ Father if Jesus is God isn’t it enough that we love God? (Scriptures quoted from the American Standard)
Fourteen answers:
TeeM
2017-02-06 13:19:06 UTC
Actually both Jesus and Paul tell us that only the Father is God.



(John 17:1-3) . . .“Father, the hour has come. Glorify your son so that your son may glorify you, 2 just as you have given him authority over all flesh, so that he may give everlasting life to all those whom you have given to him. 3 This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.



(1 Corinthians 8:5, 6) . . .just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God, the Father. . .





Nowhere will you find in scripture Jesus was 100% man and 100% God. You will not find a scripture that says "The man part of Jesus was in subjection to the God part of Jesus."



To reach the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, we must through Jesus.



Most Pseudo christians stop at Jesus and never make it his God.



.
?
2017-02-07 01:03:04 UTC
Yes, Jesus said that he was the son of God, and not God himself. But he was sent to save mankind by willingly die a horrendous DEATH. So the statement "no one comets to the father except through Jesus Christ, God's only begotten son!
The Cretan
2017-02-07 00:34:34 UTC
I can see that those who answered did a little research, but not enough. When I was a graduate student at Texas Christian University, I was allowed to use the Brite Divinity School library and I researched John 1:1. I found the following;



“[It] is clear that in the translation “the Word was God,” the term God is being used to denote his nature or essence, and not his person. But in normal English usage “God” is a proper noun, referring to the person of the Father or corporately to the three persons of the Godhead. Moreover, “the Word was God” suggests that “the Word” and “God” are convertible terms, that the proposition is reciprocating. But the Word is neither the Father nor the Trinity… The rendering cannot stand without explanation.”[4] Translations by James Moffatt, Hugh J. Schonfield and Edgar Goodspeed render part of the verse as "...and the Word was divine."

An Orthodox Bible Commentary notes: "This second theos could also be translated ‘divine’ as the construction indicates "a qualitative sense for theos". The Word is not God in the sense that he is the same person as the theos mentioned in 1:1a; he is not God the Father (God absolutely as in common NT usage) or the Trinity. The point being made is that the Logosis of the same uncreated nature or essence as God the Father, with whom he eternally exists. This verse is echoed in theNicene Creed: 'God (qualitative or derivative) from God (personal, the Father), Light from Light, True God from True God… homoousion with the Father.'"[5]

Other variations of rendering John 1:1 also exist:

• 1864 “and a god was the Word” (left hand column interlinear reading) The Emphatic Diaglott by Benjamin Wilson, New York and London.

• 1867 “In the beginning was the gospel preached through the Son. And the gospel was the word, and the word was with the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was of God” - The Joseph Smith Translation of the Bible.

• 1935 “and the Word was divine” - The Bible—An American Translation, by John M. P. Smith and Edgar J. Goodspeed, Chicago.

• 1955 “so the Word was divine” - The Authentic New Testament, by Hugh J. Schonfield, Aberdeen.

• 1978 “and godlike sort was the Logos” - Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider, Berlin.

• 1822 "and the Word was a god." - The New Testament in Greek and English (A. Kneeland, 1822.);

• 1863 "and the Word was a god." - A Literal Translation Of The New Testament (Herman Heinfetter [Pseudonym of Frederick Parker], 1863);

• 1885 "and the Word was a god." - Concise Commentary On The Holy Bible (R. Young, 1885);

• 1879 "and the Word was a god." - Das Evangelium nach Johannes (J. Becker, 1979);

• 1911 "and the Word was a god." - The Coptic Version of the N.T. (G. W. Horner, 1911);

• 1958 "and the Word was a god." - The New Testament of Our Lord and Saviour Jesus Anointed" (J. L. Tomanec, 1958);

• 1829 "and the Word was a god." - The Monotessaron; or, The Gospel History According to the Four Evangelists (J. S. Thompson, 1829);

• 1975 "and the Word was a god." - Das Evangelium nach Johannes (S. Schulz, 1975);

• 1975 "and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word" Das Evangelium nach Johnnes, by Siegfried Schulz, Göttingen, Germany

Difficulties

The text of John 1:1 has a sordid past and a myriad of interpretations. With the Greek alone, we can create empathic, orthodox, creed-like statements, or we can commit pure and unadulterated heresy. From the point of view of early church history, heresy develops when a misunderstanding arises concerning Greek articles, the predicate nominative, and grammatical word order. The early church heresy of Sabellianism understood John 1:1c to read, "and the Word was the God." The early church heresy of Arianism understood it to read, "and the word was a God."

— David A. Reed[8]
?
2017-02-06 14:43:21 UTC
Why are so many people confused as to the identity of Jesus? That is the question behind the constant argument about the trinity. Once anyone comes to know Jesus for who he is and what he teaches then it is fairly simple to not only understand the Bible.



Peter at 2 Peter 2:1-3 gives us a basic premise. That is false teachers introducing confusion into the Christian congregation. Note his inspired statement about what Paul wrote at 2 Peter 3:15, 16 in 21st century English.



"15 Furthermore, consider the patience of our Lord as salvation, just as our beloved brother Paul also wrote you according to the wisdom given him, 16 speaking about these things as he does in all his letters. However, some things in them are hard to understand, and these things the ignorant and unstable are twisting, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures, to their own destruction."



Peter here calls these false teachers ignorant. Then he points out they twist the 'rest of the Bible' as well.



Are there examples of who any of these ones are and what they falsely taught? Yes. First; who they are identified as'



1 John 2:18, 19 calls these "antichrists". Then he bluntly calls all who teach Jesus as not being the Christ (Messiah) as liars. These ones used to be Christian. But they abandoned the way for their own reasons.



Acts 20:30 points out prominent Christians, taking the lead in the Congregation, would leave the Christian teaching taking fellow believers with them. Examples are: 2 Tim 2:16, 17 "But reject empty speeches that violate what is holy, for they will lead to more and more ungodliness, 17 and their word will spread like gangrene. Hy·me·naeʹus and Phi·leʹtus are among them. 18 These men have deviated from the truth, saying that the resurrection has already occurred, and they are subverting the faith of some." ((Now you know where the idea of the resurrection to heaven immediately at death started.)) Another example is found at 3 John 10 A man named Diotrphes, prominent in the congregation fighting against the Apostle John and all who were to him.



Another warning is found at Jude 4 about those "slipping in' to take advantage of true Christians. Paul calls this type imposters and wicked who mislead the congregation. at 2 Tim 3:13.



Back to your original question...Just look at the gospel according to John. John took great pains to record his gospel in such a way as to make sure all who read it to really understand who his close friend Jesus actually is. Did you note exactly what John said to firmly identify Jesus? Here are his own words at John 20:30, 31? "30 To be sure, Jesus also performed many other signs before the disciples, which are not written down in this scroll. 31 But these have been written down so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and because of believing, you may have life by means of his name."



Many on this forum like to use what John wrote at John 10:30 as proof positive of their trinity idea. But they fail to read what Jesus said leading up to the statement, "I and the Father are one." Look for yourself if you actually love Jesus as your savior to all of that recorded conversation. John10 starting at verse 31.



"31 Once again the Jews picked up stones to stone him. 32 Jesus replied to them: “I displayed to you many fine works from the Father. For which of those works are you stoning me?” 33 The Jews answered him: “We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy; for you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” 34 Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? 35 If he called ‘gods’ those against whom the word of God came—and yet the scripture cannot be nullified— 36 do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? 37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, do not believe me. 38 But if I am doing them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, so that you may come to know and may continue knowing that the Father is in union with me and I am in union with the Father.” 39 So they tried again to seize him, but he escaped from their reach."



Did you note Jesus saying "I am God's son"? verse 36. Do you actually wonder why those who mislead people about Jesus ignore Jesus own words? Since they deliberately ignore Jesus, is it any wonder they ignore Almighty God as well? Look for yourself to the accounts of Jesus baptism. One I like is found at Mark 1:11 because it is easy to remember. God plainly says to Jesus "You are my son, the beloved. I have approved you,"



Further in John 4:23-26 Jesus words...", the hour is coming, and it is now, when the true worshippers will worship the Father with spirit and truth, for indeed, the Father is looking for ones like these to worship him. 24 God is a Spirit, and those worshipping him must worship with spirit and truth.” 25 The woman said to him: “I know that Mes·siʹah is coming, who is called Christ. Whenever that one comes, he will declare all things to us openly.” 26 Jesus said to her: “I am he, the one speaking to you."



So then, Jesus as the Messiah is accurate when he said at John 14:6 "I am the way...No one comes to the Father except by me."
Smartassawhip
2017-02-06 06:51:52 UTC
Obviously you ask an important question. No where in the Bible does Jesus say He is God and in the scriptures you quote, Jesus says or implies that He is not God. When Jesus said that He was One with God that does not mean that He is God. My arm is One with my body but my arm is not the same as my entire body. The idea that Jesus is God is certain theologians opinion and is by the nature of Man's opinions, not necessarily true.
-
2017-02-06 06:38:39 UTC
The Trinity of God the Father in heaven = His Son and His Spirit on earth, is similar to the trinity of the Sun in outer space = her light and her warmth/heat on earth.



No one can go near the Sun in outer space(= incinerated) or go near God the Father in heaven(EXO.33:20 n JOHN.1:18). Humans can only see sunlight n feel the sun-warmth/heat or see God's Son n feel God's Spirit/power.(JOHN.14:8-9, 2COR.3:17)

....... According to the Bible, humans need to first go to God's Son/Spirit on earth b4 they can go near God the Father in heaven. It's like human-astronauts needing to travel with the speed of light b4 they can go near the Sun.



How come.? Why.? Bc of Adam's Original Sin = all humans r born with satanic/evil hearts n minds = unclean = need atonement/forgiveness.(JOHN.8:44, MATT.16:23 & 23:27, MARK.7:21, 1JOHN.3:8)(ROM.5:12, LEV.17:11, HEB.9:22, JOHN.3:16)

....... Eg first, humans often harbor involuntary thoughts of immoral lust in their hearts, then they may voluntarily go n commit adultery or sexual immoral acts.(MATT.5:27-30) For the former Adamic "sin", God will curse them into being sent to hell when they die, n for the latter sin/evil-deed/law-breaking, God will curse them with a sad n short life on earth(DEUT.28:15, 1COR.5:1-5 & 11:30, 1JOHN.5:16-19).



Bear in mind that at ACTS.15:24-29, God/Jesus has exempted Gentile Christians from any law of Moses which is a burden, eg circumcision, kosher foods, etc. They r still required to keep/obey any law of Moses which is not a burden, esp moral laws, eg the Ten Commandments at EXO.20, DEUT.18:9-14, LEV.10:9, etc.(1COR.6:9-11, REV.22:14-16)

....... The best outcome for a young Christian is to be blessed by God with a good n long life on earth and with the kingdom of heaven after they die, eg 1THESS.4:16.

.
G C
2017-02-06 05:42:00 UTC
Jesus is God and the whole book of John was written to show you that.
lazyslacker013
2017-02-06 05:15:58 UTC
If I remember right didn't john start the whole tradition of popes and catholicism? or am I misremembering? Well if he did start the church than it makes sense he'd say something so ridiculous as it would be a way adding to church power. You have to accept christ and do it our way or no heaven for you. Still waiting on that book of Jesus to make it into the bible. Oh, wait he didn't write one.
?
2017-02-06 05:06:07 UTC
Jesus is The Son of The Creator God... it is a requirement of God that those mortals seeking to come to Him, must, as part of certain other requirements, accept His Son Jesus for who, and what, he is... and acknowledge what Jesus has done for the seeker, and for all of man-kind.
2017-02-06 05:00:34 UTC
Yes, it says that
DP.
2017-02-06 15:09:21 UTC
How wonderfully you demonstrate your bias and ignorance in one simple step.



Let's review what this passage DOES NOT say...



"no one comes to God except by me!"



Note that? It's doesn't say God.. thank the Lord He made sure we understood the fact we come to the Father through His son.... Hallelujah!



Then you use the JW stubling verse 17... "And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another advocate to help you and be with you forever"



JWs try to use this verse to show that Jesus isn't God in the EXACT same way they continue to use ALL those verses where there is a distinction in roles between the Father and Son and where Jesus is specifically incarnate... which show nothing more than they are separate persons. This verse (and the plethora of similar verses) don't speak to whether Jesus was divine or not, only that He isn't the Father.



... but wait why is this a stumbler verse for JWs? Well read again with precise emphasise on the word JWs avoid..."And I will ask the Father, and he will give you ANOTHER advocate to help you and be with you forever"



Get that? "ANOTHER ADVOCATE". Yes that's right Jesus is saying the advocate that the Father sends is like the one He has already sent. i.e. Jesus. JWs don't like that because it either means the Holy Spirit is a physical being like the first advocate (Jesus) or that Jesus wasn't and isn't a physically real being (i.e. just god's active force).. both positions are impossible to reconcile with the bible!



I think your question and your argument are evidence of only one thing.. you're confusion!
Gregory
2017-02-06 07:24:33 UTC
while jesus was on earth he was subject to god because he was living as a human being who had to obey the father. before being on earth jesus was existing in the beginning with god and was god with god the father. john 1:1-3,14
?
2017-02-06 05:37:08 UTC
You are equating "Father" with "God"

Clearly the passage reads "Father" and not "God"

and an accurate equation would equate the union of Father, Son and Holy Spirit with "God".



You are employing the logical "fallacy of equivocation". That is why you are confused.
2017-02-06 05:06:51 UTC
John 3:16

Psalm 139:16

John 10:29

John 17


This content was originally posted on Y! Answers, a Q&A website that shut down in 2021.
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