Christians, serious question about a translation of the NT…?

Question

Christians, I have a serious question about a translation of the N. Please only answer if you have actually read the New Testament and have studied the translations of Paul.

In Corinthians 6:9-10 Paul lists off people who will not get into heaven. In all the translations that I am familiar with, one of the things named on the list is “effeminates”.

What is the actual word(s)? How does it translate/interpret into English?

In a previous question, I received several totally contradictory explanations for this translation of the New Testament (as well as a lack of answers to my actual question). http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080213094138AAtlvQr&r=w

One person said it was just another word for homosexuals, another said it was rich people, another said it was boy prostitutes. I have, also, been told that it is cross-dressers, another that it is men doing women’s work.

I am very confused.

Answer 1

The reason that you are getting so many different answers to your question is because the origional word "malakoi" is used so infrequently that it is difficult to translate the meaning. Techincally this word means "soft". Now whether Paul meant that to mean "soft morals" - ie someone vain, selfish and easily lead astray, or if he meant it to mean a "soft man" a man who is bedded as a woman (this would be the boy prostitute answer) is unclear. What is clear is that he did not mean swishy/gay men. That would be putting a modern idea into the ancient text.

Further down in the list is homosexual (at least in the King James version), but again you need to look at the origional word "arsenokoitai" which literally is translated Sodomite. Here again is a point of contention. Some believe that Paul meant anyone who engages in sodomy, which certainly would include homosexual men, while others believe that Paul was being more specific about the behavior of the men from Sodom. They were known to be vicious, sexually aggressive and often rapists. This combined with the effeminant word above would possibly be meant to include both male prostitutes and the men who would take advantage of said male prostitutes.

Do you see where the confusion is? It is very problematic to take one or two verses, divorce them from the rest of the Bible, and try to glean an overarching philosophy from that small amount of text.

Of course it is quite possible that the text is not clouded. That Paul simply meant a Morally soft man, and a man who engages in sodomy.

Which answer shall we believe? As with all Scripture we are told that if we seek with an open heart God will reveal himself to us through the scripture.

I'd guess we all need to do a bit more seeking.

Answer 2

It really doesn't matter what the word actually means. But okay, let me show you what I got and where I got it:



Effeminate as stated in 1 Corinthians 6:



Strong's Number: 3120

Malakos

Adjective



Definition



1. soft, soft to the touch

2. metaph. in a bad sense

1. effeminate

1. of a catamite

2. of a boy kept for homosexual relations with a man

3. of a male who submits his body to unnatural lewdness

4. of a male prostitute



They are all covered through Christ in faith. That's why I said 'it doesn't matter.'



We are ALL guilty of sin! It doesn't matter which. The salvation covers that through faith in the Lord Jesus Christ.



How many times do I have to say it before this sinks in?

Answer 3

http://www.sacred-texts.com/bib/poly/co1006.htm



This has Greek, KJV, and Latin all side by side of Corinthians. I don't know Greek (the original text), but I do know some Latin, which would reflect the Greek text more closely than English, seeing how the languages are similar in syntax and usage. The word translated as "effeminate" is "molles," which means a someone who is soft, supple, or womanly.

In terms of homosexuals, he does go on to say "neque masculorum concubitores," or "nor the bedfellows of men" in 6:10 (6:9 in KJV).

Hope this helps.

Answer 4

i will assure that there is no longer something "each residing Bible student" is of an identical opinion on. that's an exceptionally fake assertion. purely Jehovah's Witnesses evaluate their translation the main suitable. I even have examine that the main suitable translation is a Catholic translation using fact they do no longer declare to be a Bible based church. maximum of their doctrines come from traditions, that they say, predate the Bible. consequently, they don't have an time table of translating to verify their theology (even inspite of the shown fact that the greater writings in a Catholic Bible do help a number of their doctrines). the main extensively common English translation by ability of Catholics, Orthodox and Protestants interior the U.S. is the Revised many times happening version.

Answer 5

I believe you are referring to the various KJ versions.



The New International Version translates it this way: 9Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders

Answer 6

We might never be sure, but there is what the Church teaches (and the Church gave us the Bible), so if this is a practical question, no need to get a Biblical Languages degree.



But if it isn't...then know that the Vulgate (being St Jerome's translation) which has mis-translations in some places is, however, taken as certain in faith and morals, and he has

""neque masculorum concubitores" -- homosexuals

Answer 7

Hello. I invite you to consider that Paul was mis-guided in his knowledge of heaven. The problem is in thinking that the apostles knew what they were talking about. Remember, the apostles were taught by someone (either by Jesus or by someone who had learned from the teachings of Jesus). Just because Paul said something, doesn't make his understanding perfect or right. Consider the possiblity that Paul's understanding of Jesus' teachings were incomplete, inaccurate or just simply faulty.



Secondly, you must ask yourself, "what is heaven?" Is heaven somewhere ELSE? Is heaven a separate thing from life here on Earth? I invite you to consider this option:



Heaven is right here in this life and heaven is right here after this life. In other words, heaven is not a place, it is a state of being. Heaven is not a separate place because it is not a PLACE! Therefore, heaven is not somewhere you GO TO, it is a State of Being that you are BEING.



Paul did not understand this because Paul thought heaven was a separate place. But now comes a higher truth and a higher understanding, a moment of CLARITY in your life when suddenly, you are awakened to a higher truth about what Is. This is such a moment in your life, when you are being opened unto a newer and more complete understanding.



The understanding I am providing you with is, that there is no where ELSE. Therefore, God cannot separate some from others and would not do so for any reason. Homosexuals, bisexuals, transgender, heterosexuals, whatever....all go to heaven because heaven is not a place, but a state of being. You yourself are in that state of being right now but do not know it...for there is a higher self in you which realizes this truth and it is that higher self, who now broadens your mind and allows you to realize this higher truth about who you are and what everyone else is in relation to that.



Paul was not understanding nor was he willing to be understanding of this truth. But now, you understand that all of everything is heaven, that is...there is no separation of the "godly from the ungodly." For there is no One BUT God.



The highest truth you will ever know is that God is One.

Answer 8

The word being used is "malakos" (Lat., mollis, Eng., mollify, emollient, etc.) meaning is: soft, soft to the touch, and being used metaphorically, in a bad sense, 1 Cor 6:9, as effeminate, not simply of a male who practices forms of lewdness, but persons in general, who are guilty of addiction to sins of the flesh.

Answer 9

The common thread in all these translations of Pauls words at 1Cor. 6: is that men who have sex with men (homosexuals) will not inherit God's kingdom.



Also Romans the first chapter says: "That is why God gave them up to disgraceful appetites; for both their females changed the natural use of themselves into one contrary to nature and likewise even the males left the natural use of the female and became violently inflamed in their lust toward one another, males with males, working what is obscene and receiving in themselves the full recompense which was due for their error. So the Bible makes clear that sex with someone of the same gender is wrong: males w/males or females w/females.



God disapproves of all sex outside of marriage (fornication), not just homosexual sex.



You have people of all sorts of different religions on here and they are going to have different opinions of what the Bible says. Each of us needs to study the Bible for himself in order to know what it says. Jesus said at John 17:3 that we should take in ACCURATE knowledge of God and Jesus Christ which leads to everlasting life.

Answer 10

I think it's easiest to interpret things like this if you put it into the context of the entire biblical text. this enables you to determine things like this for yourself.



IMHO, It is obvious that if God in other portions of the Bible expresses clear disapproval of heterosexual fornication(sex out of wedlock). Knowing that, why would anyone be surprised if he comes done hard on homosexuality in another portion of the text.

Answer 11

If you want some answers you're probably going to have to lower the requirements. I doubt some people on here haven't read the NT, let alone studied translations. Of course people exaggerate all the time - so they'll probably lie and tell you that they have studied them.

Answer 12

it refers to a particular group of sins, some of which yuou list... as does all of the other "words"... all who commit these sins and do not genuinly repent of them will not receive God's Gift of Salvation... If they do genuinly repent and do come to God as He prescribes... then they too may receive God's free, and eternal, gift of Salvation, and be allowed wntry into Heaven

Answer 13

...sometimes, when wondering on whether a word was translated from the orginal language correctly, its best to ask the ultimate source...which is God, of course...



...I assure you He will always tell you what He meant if you ask...

Answer 14

I think it is cross dresser or acting like a woman .

Answer 15

Effeminate means...that Men who act like women to put it simply..Feminite is what we say for women efeeminite is for men who try to be like women..All the men who crossdress, have sex changes, gays, etc..etc..etc..