What did Jesus mean when he said "you will be with me in Paradise' and how could that happen on that very day?

Question

Is there really a paradise and if Jesus was dead for almost 3 days, how could he be with that evil doer in paradise the same day they both died? Here's the scripture :Like 23:43
And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise.

Answer 1

Luke 23:43 (NWT)

“Truly I tell you today, You will be with me in Paradise.”



Luke 23:43 (NIV, and most others)

"I tell you the truth, today you will be with me in paradise."



The NWT has been severely criticized for its rendering of Luke 23:43. It all has to do with the placement of the comma, before or after the word "today." Which translation is correct?



One can get two completely different but valid meanings, according to Greek grammar. There was no punctuation in the original Greek - the Greek can be translated either way.



The Coptic is the oldest version of the Greek New Testament known today. Considered with the other ancient versions, the Syriac and the Old Latin, the Coptic is generally considered superior. It is better established, and has a better textual basis. The Coptic was made when Koine Greek was still a living language, and still the lingua franca of the Mediterranean world.



The best Sahidic texts, as found in Warren Wells' Sahidica text, have the Coptic particle "Je" after its word for "today." This "Je" is the equivalent to the English comma, or the word "that."



It may be rendered:

"Truly I say to you today, you will be with me in paradise."

Or:

"Truly I say to you today that you will be with me in paradise."



It was a common semitic idiom to use the word "today" like it is used in the NWT's rendering of Luke 23:43.



For example:



Zechariah 9:12:

“Also, today I am telling you, ‘I shall repay to you, O woman, a double portion."



Note this reference work:

"According to the Aramaic manner of speech, the emphasis in this text [Luke 23:43] is on the word ‘today’ and should read, ‘Truly I say to you today, you will be with me in Paradise.’ . . . This is a characteristic of Oriental speech implying that the promise was made on a certain day and would surely be kept.”—Gospel Light from Aramaic on the Teachings of Jesus."



Jesus was just using a common semitic idiom for showing the truthfulness of his statement, as was done in Zechariah.

Answer 2

Just considering John 3:13 when answering this question.



"Moreover, no man has ascended into heaven but he that descended from heaven, the Son of man."



Jesus did not ascent to heaven the day he died. He lied 3 days dead and then came back to life by his Father's will. But he didn't go to heaven then! He stayed on earth and apperars several times to his disciples. Much later (read Acts chapter 1) he ascends to heaven.



The man who died with him was dead for an unknown number of days then. But when Jesus ascended to heaven, there wasn't a man before him who did.



To make the punctuation that the reader might think the man would be in paradise the same day is completely wrong.

Answer 3

He didn't mean the very same day.



See, the Greek didn't have punctuation marks in it (and it was all caps too) so it went like:



and Jesus said unto him verily I say unto thee today shalt thou be with me in paradise



(minus the punctuation marks)



It's the translators who put the punctuation marks there in the English (they are necessary in English) but where they put them can change the meaning.



Look what it means when you move the comma to after "Today" and use lower-case "t":



"And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee today, shalt thou be with me in paradise"



Thus it means the man would be in him in Paradise at a later unspecified time.



Other Bible translations have the comma after "today", for that fits in with the rest of the story, namely, Jesus did NOT go anywhere that very day- he was dead for THREE days.

Answer 4

The thief on the cross repented of his sins and believed in Jesus. Jesus forgave him of his sins and promised him eternal life. They both died on the same day, then they both went to Heaven. How hard is that to understand?

This quote from Jesus should be proof to you that He didn't spend three days in Hell, but went straight to the Father.

Answer 5

Love is a gift from God, and as we obey His laws and genuinely learn to serve others, we develop God's love in our lives. Love of God is the means of unlocking divine powers which help us to live worthily and to overcome the world.

David B. Haight

Answer 6

Because Paradise was in the center of the earth at that time, across from hell, separated by a great chasm. People in hell could look across and see Abraham in Paradise. Jesus preached there for 3 days then freed those there when he was resurrected. He took the keys to death and the grave. It's in the Bible, you can read it yourself.

Answer 7

Here is another scripture that proves Jesus did not ascend to his Father on the day he died.



After 3 days:



John 20:17

Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me. For I have not yet ascended to the Father. But be on your way to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and YOUR Father and to my God and YOUR God.’”

Answer 8

They did both die later that day. According to the rules of the Bible's plotline, that would be quite feasible.

Answer 9

2 Cor 5:

7(For we walk by faith, not by sight:)



8We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.



9Wherefore we labour, that, whether present or absent, we may be accepted of him.