Jehovahs witnesses...how do you make sence of John 20:28?

Question

How do you make sense of John 20: 28. Jehovahs witnesses answer only please.

Answer 1

Greetings,



Thomas' calling Jesus "God" does not in any way conflict with the teachings of Jehovah's Witnesses, nor does it make Jesus equal to Almighty God.



Their book "Reasoning from the Scriptures" says: "There is no objection to referring to Jesus as ‘God,'... Such would be in harmony with Jesus' own quotation from the Psalms in which powerful men, judges, were addressed as "gods." (Jn 10:34, 35; Ps. 82:1-6) Of course, Christ occupies a position far higher than such men. Because of the uniqueness of his position in relation to Jehovah, at Jn 1:18 Jesus is referred to as "the only-begotten god." Isa9:6 also prophetically describes Jesus as ‘Mighty God,' but not as the Almighty God."



So Witnesses recognize that Christ is called "God" several times in the N.T. But, they also know that EVERY TIME Jesus is called "god" the context always shows that Jesus is separated from and less than the Eternal, Almighty God.



An absolute rule of exegesis is that we cannot interpret an author in a way which would cause a contradiction with his explicit statements. And John's explicit statements ALWAYS present Jesus as separate and inferior to God. For example, just a couple of sentences before Thomas' words John quotes Jesus as saying that he was "going to his God and his Father" (20:17). Could Almighty God have a "God"? Then just a few sentences later John says that the purpose of his gospel was to prove that Jesus was "the SON of The God", not to make us believe that Jesus was The God (Jn. 20:31). These statements of John would be absurd if Thomas had actually identified Jesus as the Almighty God by his words. Obviously, John did not interpret Thomas' words as Trinitarians do.



Also the greater context makes this clear. The Bible speaks of a God over Jesus over 20 times! William Barclay states: "Time and time again the Fourth Gospel speaks of God sending Jesus into the world. Time and time again we see Jesus praying to God....Nowhere does the New Testament identify Jesus with God."—A Spiritual Autobiography



Karl Rahner, the eminent Roman Catholic theologian, considers that there are reliable applications of "THEOS" to Christ in six texts. Rahner, however, immediately goes on the say that in none of these instances is "THEOS" used in such a manner as to identify Jesus with the Supreme God.--Theological Investigations



Next, this phrase was in common usage at the time of Christ and applied to men but never with the understanding that they were equal to Almighty God. For example: "Domitian required officials to speak of him in their documents as 'Our Lord and God'."—Durant; Caesar and Christ; 292, cf. Erdmans Handbook to the History of Christianity & E. Mould; Essentials of Bible History



The book "Aspects of Monotheism" states: "God" is an allegorical equivalent for "king." At seeing the risen Christ Thomas recognized that Jesus was now the divine king and so the designation "My God and my Lord" was entirely appropriate. Yet, this in no way meant Thomas thought Jesus was Jehovah God any more than Israel's human kings were Jehovah just because they were also addressed as "God."



Raymond Brown, a Catholic scholar, said "'God' may have been looked on simply as a royal title and hence applicable to Jesus as the Davidic Messiah"--Jesus, God and Man





Today, when we use the word "God" we are usually referring to the one true almighty God. This was not the case in Bible times. In the Bible this title was used of humans and angels (Ex. 4:16; 7:1; Ps. 8:5/Heb. 2:8; Ps. 82:1,6; Jn.10:34). Any Bible dictionary will give you the same meaning of the word "God" that Strong's Lexicon does: "mighty ones, rulers, judges, divine ones, angels." So while humans and angels are correctly called "god," they still have Jehovah God over them. The term "god" simply means someone who is over others in some capacity.



So, Thomas would know that in the Scriptures kings and angels were properly called God without according them the status of Almighty God. He would certainly be aware that the Messiah was to be called "mighty God" as the greatest "servant" and representative for Jehovah (Isa.9:6; 52:13; 53:11; Ac.3:13; 3:26).





Further showing that Thomas did not have in mind calling Jesus the "Most High" God is the fact that Thomas' grammar limited the application of Christ's Godship. When he said "my" God, or literally "of me," he used the genitive case. By using these words Thomas 'qualifies' the Godship and Lordship to *himself* only; speaking of the relative position between himself and the resurrected Christ.



Paul did a similar "qualifying" of Satan's Godship at 2Cor.4:4 which reads: "the god (hO THEOS) *of this* (a genitive) age has blinded the minds of the unbelievers." Paul qualified Satan's Godship as being *limited* to this wicked "age".





In his addressing Christ as "my God" Thomas simply addressed Jesus as God's divine Representative.



"The adoring exclamation of St. Thomas "my Lord and my God": is still not quite the same as an address to Christ as being without qualification God."—John Martin Creed, The Divinity of Jesus Christ





Therefore, the argument that Jesus must be equal to Almighty God because he was called "The God" by Thomas is faulty because it demands an ignorance of Greek grammar, syntax and usage. The Trinitarian interpretation also ignores the way the term "God" was used in Bible times and it contradicts every explicit scripture which shows that Jesus was less than Almighty God at every point of his existence (Jn. 14:28; 20:17; Mk.13:32; 1Cor.15:27,28; Rev.3:2,12). At the highest position he will ever attain, Jesus is still "subject" to *GOD* the same way we are "subject" to him.



Anyone who says that Jesus was equal to God, simply does not know what his disciples knew nor do they accept what the Bible clearly states.





Hope that helps,



BAR-ANERGES

Answer 2

In the bible there are 3 specific meanings of the phrase soul. a million. Man two. Animals three. The existence that guys and animals own Consider additionally different translation/variant John 10:17 (New International Version) 17The rationale my Father loves me is that I lay down my existence—most effective to take it up once more. John 10:17 (King James Version) 17Therefore doth my Father love me, considering that I lay down my existence, that I could take it once more. Obviously in John 10:17 what's to accept again is the lifetime of JEsus no longer his bodily frame whilst he used to be a person. Remember in a million Tim two:five-6 it says that through giving his existence, he gave a "corresponding ransom" for all (human). It would not be a corresponding ransom if he sacrifices used to be a lifetime of a person-god of mankind. Regarding your premises.. a million) We suppose JEsus used to be a ultimate guy whilst he used to be in the world. But lengthy earlier than guy existed he used to be a robust spirit creature. two & three) It is not only a WT educating, it's the bible's. Many accept as true with this no longer simply JWs. four-6)See my reply above.

Answer 3

For further information & learn more - you may wish to get in touch with Jehovah's Witnesses at the local Kingdom Hall. Or: watchtower.org



There is no objection to referring to Jesus as “God,” if this is what Thomas had in mind. Such would be in harmony with Jesus’ own quotation from the Psalms in which powerful men, judges, were addressed as “gods.” (John 10:34, 35, "Revised Standard Version"; Psalms 82:1-6) Of course, Christ occupies a position far higher than such men. Because of the uniqueness of his position in relation to Jehovah, at John 1:18 Jesus is referred to as “the only-begotten god.” (See also Joseph B. Rotherham's Bible, Byingtion.) Isaiah 9:6 ("Revised Standard Version") also prophetically describes Jesus as “Mighty God,” but not as the Almighty God. All of this is in harmony with Jesus’ being described as “a god,” or “divine,” at John 1:1 ("An American Translation").

The context helps us to draw the right conclusion from this. Shortly before Jesus’ death, Thomas had heard Jesus’ prayer in which he addressed his Father as “the only true God.” (John 17:3, "Revised Standard Version.") After Jesus’ resurrection Jesus had sent a message to his apostles, including Thomas, in which he had said: “I am ascending . . . to my God and your God.” (John 20:17, "Revised Standard Version.") After recording what Thomas said when he actually saw and touched the resurrected Christ, the apostle John stated: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name.” (John 20:31, "Revised Standard Version.") So, if anyone has concluded from Thomas’ exclamation that Jesus is himself “the only true God” or that Jesus is a Trinitarian “God the Son,” he needs to look again at what Jesus

himself said (verse 17) and at the conclusion that is clearly stated by the apostle John (verse 31).



Bible -

Answer 4

I can understand why you are questioning this, but if you look at the verses before and after, you will see that when Thomas was exclaiming: My lord and my God, he was referring to both Jesus and Jesus Father, Jehovah. This can be backed up by scriptures throughout the bible that prove Jesus is the son of God.



On a human level: one can say: My mother and my father, this does not mean they are one person.



I do thank you for asking in a polite way.

Answer 5

Wow, I can't believe you don't understand this verse. JW's shouldn't even bother answering. Don't waste your time. I am not JW and I know the meaning of this verse. Thomas was a Jew. Jews didn't worship a triune God, buddy. Most trinitarians stopped using this verse because of that obvious fact. Go use John 1:1 or something else but you chose the wrong verse.

Answer 6

In reality, Thomas was an Israelite. The ancient Israelites did not worship Jehovah God as a trinity. You can search history for that one.



If it is true, that the ancient Israelites did not worship God as a trinity, then Thomas' exclamation must have a different meaning from those who think Thomas was saying Jehovah, the holy spirit, and Jesus are in one God head.





But what about the apostle Thomas’ saying, “My Lord and my God!” to Jesus at John 20:28? To Thomas, Jesus was like “a god,” especially in the miraculous circumstances that prompted his exclamation. Some scholars suggest that Thomas may simply have made an emotional exclamation of astonishment, spoken to Jesus but directed to God. In either case, Thomas did not think that Jesus was Almighty God, for he and all the other apostles knew that Jesus never claimed to be God but taught that Jehovah alone is “the only true God.”—John 17:3.

Again, the context helps us to understand this. A few days earlier the resurrected Jesus had told Mary Magdalene to tell the disciples: “I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.” (John 20:17) Even though Jesus was already resurrected as a mighty spirit, Jehovah was still his God. And Jesus continued to refer to Him as such even in the last book of the Bible, after he was glorified.—Revelation 1:5, 6; 3:2, 12.

Just three verses after Thomas’ exclamation, at John 20:31, the Bible further clarifies the matter by stating: “These have been written down that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God,” not that he was Almighty God. And it meant “Son” in a literal way, as with a natural father and son, not as some mysterious part of a Trinity Godhead

Answer 7

1 Corinthians 8:5, 6 says, "For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him."



So, yes, Jesus could be considered a god, but to us there is only ONE god that we worship: Jehovah. To us there is only ONE Lord to whom we give proper honor and respect: Jesus.

Answer 8

Well, you could start by citing the whole account. In verse 17 Jesus himself says that he is ascending to "his God". So, apparently, the God in the heavens is Jesus' God as well. Are you your God? or is your God your God? When Thomas said that to Jesus was he also saying that he too IS JESUS? And, ascending to yourself is a little dificult. Then, in verse 31, again of the same chapter, John says that he wrote these things "that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God." The son of God.



It also helps to understand that the word God in the Bible was used to refer to: Satan, Aaron, and the angels as well. So, are they all also part of the trinity?



I have argued the trinity for decades with people of all walks of life. I have never convinced not one of them that I am right and they have never convinced me either. It really is the epitome of a colossal waste of energy. Although, I did feel the need to fill in some blanks from up above. Thank you.

Answer 9

Why Thomas who saw God almighty didnt die...if according to the same bible it says that if you see God almighty you die...it is illogical....unless the bible contradict itself...or maybe Jesus is not his own father the God almighty of the universe and also son of God almighty of the universe.

Answer 10

‘Why, then,’ one may ask, ‘did Thomas exclaim when seeing the resurrected Jesus, “My Lord and my God!”?’ As already noted, Jesus is a god in the sense of being divine, but he is not the Father. Jesus had just told Mary Magdalene: “I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.” Remember, too, why John wrote his Gospel. Three verses after the account about Thomas, John explained that he wrote so that people “may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God”—not that he is God.—John 20:17, 28, 31.

Addressing the resurrected Jesus, the apostle Thomas exclaimed: “My Lord and my God!” (John 20:28) This and other accounts were “written down that [we] may believe that Jesus is the Christ the Son of God.” And Thomas was not contradicting Jesus, who had sent His disciples the message: “I am ascending to . . . my God and your God.” (John 20:17, 30, 31) So Thomas did not think that Jesus was Almighty God. Thomas may have addressed Jesus as “my God” in the sense of Christ’s being “a god,” though not “the only true God.” (John 1:1; 17:1-3) Or by saying “my God,” Thomas may have been acknowledging Jesus as God’s Spokesman and Representative, even as others addressed an angelic messenger as though he were Jehovah.

There is no objection to referring to Jesus as “God,” if this is what Thomas had in mind. Such would be in harmony with Jesus’ own quotation from the Psalms in which powerful men, judges, were addressed as “gods.” (John 10:34, 35, RS; Ps. 82:1-6) Of course, Christ occupies a position far higher than such men. Because of the uniqueness of his position in relation to Jehovah, at John 1:18 (NW) Jesus is referred to as “the only-begotten god.” (See also Ro, By.) Isaiah 9:6 (RS) also prophetically describes Jesus as “Mighty God,” but not as the Almighty God. All of this is in harmony with Jesus’ being described as “a god,” or “divine,” at John 1:1 (NW, AT).

The context helps us to draw the right conclusion from this. Shortly before Jesus’ death, Thomas had heard Jesus’ prayer in which he addressed his Father as “the only true God.” (John 17:3, RS) After Jesus’ resurrection Jesus had sent a message to his apostles, including Thomas, in which he had said: “I am ascending . . . to my God and your God.” (John 20:17, RS) After recording what Thomas said when he actually saw and touched the resurrected Christ, the apostle John stated: “These are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name.” (John 20:31, RS) So, if anyone has concluded from Thomas’ exclamation that Jesus is himself “the only true God” or that Jesus is a Trinitarian “God the Son,” he needs to look again at what Jesus himself said (vs. 17) and at the conclusion that is clearly stated by the apostle John (vs. 31).

Answer 11

This man believed Christ was the living GOD because he did miracles and spread forth the wisdom of the LORD while in the form of man. But the LORD does not have a man spirit, so how can the living GOD be a man? Christ is his Son.

Answer 12

John 20: 28 reads 8 "In answer Thomas said to him: “My Lord and my God!”



Thomas had just seen the ressurected Jesus and rightfully recognised Jesus as his Lord and his God.



Jehovah's Witnesses recognise Jesus as a god, indeed he is called a "mighty god" (see Isaiah chapter 9 verse 6) but he is NEVER referred to as ALMIGHTY God. The bible says that Jesus has a God, and his God is his Father (see Romans 15; 6).

Answer 13

Would you even admit it if you were proven wrong anyway?

Answer 14

Oh yeah, Ronny and Jeshurun have got it nailed.....

Answer 15

They can't...........especially because Jesus affirmed Thomas' proclaimation in the very next verse. If He wasn't both Lord and God, Jesus would have told Thomas he was blaspheming....which He didn't.



So many references in Scripture to the Deity of Jesus Christ.....I sometimes cringe at how blind the JWs are

Answer 16

Anything that is worshiped can be termed a god, inasmuch as the worshiper attributes to it might greater than his own and venerates it. A person can even let his belly be a god. (Ro 16:18; Php 3:18, 19) The Bible makes mention of many gods (Ps 86:8; 1Co 8:5, 6), but it shows that the gods of the nations are valueless gods.-Ps 96:5; see GODS AND GODDESSES.

Hebrew Terms. Among the Hebrew words that are translated “God” is ’El, probably meaning “Mighty One; Strong One.” (Ge 14:18) It is used with reference to Jehovah, to other gods, and to men. It is also used extensively in the makeup of proper names, such as Elisha (meaning “God Is Salvation”) and Michael (“Who Is Like God?”). In some places ’El appears with the definite article (ha‧’El', literally, “the God”) with reference to Jehovah, thereby distinguishing him from other gods.-Ge 46:3; 2Sa 22:31; see NW appendix, p. 1567.

At Isaiah 9:6 Jesus Christ is prophetically called ’El Gib‧bohr', “Mighty God” (not ’El Shad‧dai' [God Almighty], which is applied to Jehovah at Genesis 17:1).

The plural form, ’e‧lim', is used when referring to other gods, such as at Exodus 15:11 (“gods”). It is also used as the plural of majesty and excellence, as in Psalm 89:6: “Who can resemble Jehovah among the sons of God [bi‧beneh' ’E‧lim']?” That the plural form is used to denote a single individual here and in a number of other places is supported by the translation of ’E‧lim' by the singular form The‧os' in the Greek Septuagint; likewise by Deus in the Latin Vulgate.

The Hebrew word ’elo‧him' (gods) appears to be from a root meaning “be strong.” ’Elo‧him' is the plural of ’eloh'ah (god). Sometimes this plural refers to a number of gods (Ge 31:30, 32; 35:2), but more often it is used as a plural of majesty, dignity, or excellence. ’Elo‧him' is used in the Scriptures with reference to Jehovah himself, to angels, to idol gods (singular and plural), and to men.

When applying to Jehovah, ’Elo‧him' is used as a plural of majesty, dignity, or excellence. (Ge 1:1) Regarding this, Aaron Ember wrote: “That the language of the O[ld] T[estament] has entirely given up the idea of plurality in . . . [’Elo‧him'] (as applied to the God of Israel) is especially shown by the fact that it is almost invariably construed with a singular verbal predicate, and takes a singular adjectival attribute. . . . [’Elo‧him'] must rather be explained as an intensive plural, denoting greatness and majesty, being equal to The Great God.”-The American Journal of Semitic Languages and Literatures, Vol. XXI, 1905, p. 208.

The title ’Elo‧him' draws attention to Jehovah’s strength as the Creator. It appears 35 times by itself in the account of creation, and every time the verb describing what he said and did is in the singular number. (Ge 1:1-2:4) In him resides the sum and substance of infinite forces.

At Psalm 8:5, the angels are also referred to as ’elo‧him', as is confirmed by Paul’s quotation of the passage at Hebrews 2:6-8. They are called beneh' ha‧’Elo‧him', “sons of God” (KJ); “sons of the true God” (NW), at Genesis 6:2, 4; Job 1:6; 2:1. Lexicon in Veteris Testamenti Libros, by Koehler and Baumgartner (1958), page 134, says: “(individual) divine beings, gods.” And page 51 says: “the (single) gods,” and it cites Genesis 6:2; Job 1:6; 2:1; 38:7. Hence, at Psalm 8:5 ’elo‧him' is rendered “angels” (LXX); “godlike ones” (NW).

The word ’elo‧him' is also used when referring to idol gods. Sometimes this plural form means simply “gods.” (Ex 12:12; 20:23) At other times it is the plural of excellence and only one god (or goddess) is referred to. However, these gods were clearly not trinities.-1Sa 5:7b (Dagon); 1Ki 11:5 (“goddess” Ashtoreth); Da 1:2b (Marduk).

At Psalm 82:1, 6, ’elo‧him' is used of men, human judges in Israel. Jesus quoted from this Psalm at John 10:34, 35. They were gods in their capacity as representatives of and spokesmen for Jehovah. Similarly Moses was told that he was to serve as “God” to Aaron and to Pharaoh.-Ex 4:16, ftn; 7:1.

In many places in the Scriptures ’Elo‧him' is also found preceded by the definite article ha. (Ge 5:22) Concerning the use of ha‧’Elo‧him', F. Zorell says: “In the Holy Scriptures especially the one true God, Jahve, is designated by this word; . . . ‘Jahve is the [one true] God’ De 4:35; 4:39; Jos 22:34; 2Sa 7:28; 1Ki 8:60 etc.”-Lexicon Hebraicum Veteris Testamenti, Rome, 1984, p. 54; brackets his.

The Greek Term. The usual Greek equivalent

Answer 17

My Adonai, and my Elohim, this is how WE READ! www.thencci.com

Answer 18

how can they make sense of anything when they are not part of my body?,they only work for satin,i send them all into the furnace.,we love you all,the holy family.

Answer 19

Good question. If you read it carefully, you will see that Jesus is telling him that he is wrong. This is just my personal observation and not the official teaching of Jehovah's witnesses.



However, even if he were calling Jesus his god, that would be perfectly proper. If you remember, God said that He made Moses "a god"--"as God" to Pharoah, and Aaron would be Moses' prophet, making him God to Aaron, too:



"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet. 2Thou shalt speak all that I command thee: and Aaron thy brother shall speak unto Pharaoh, that he send the children of Israel out of his land." (Ex. 7:1-2 King James or "Authorized" version)



Young's Literal Translation shows what the original Bible manuscripts actually said:



"And Jehovah saith unto Moses, `See, I have given thee a god to Pharaoh, and Aaron thy brother is thy prophet; 2thou -- thou dost speak all that I command thee, and Aaron thy brother doth speak unto Pharaoh, and he hath sent the sons of Israel out of his land."



The Amplified Bible explains:



"THE LORD said to Moses, Behold, I make you as God to Pharaoh [to declare My will and purpose to him]; and Aaron your brother shall be your prophet."



So God, Himself, plainly said that Moses was to be a god, as God, to both Pharoah and Aaron, his brother. Of course, this meant that Moses would be God's representative to Pharoah and to Aaron.



Now, do you remember that Moses pictured Jesus? Both narrowly escaped death as babies, both saved God's people, both were mediators for God's people, and both were mediators of covenants for God's people:



God told Moses, "I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. 19And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him." (Deut. 18:18-19 KJ/AV)



The apostle Peter showed that the 'prophet like Moses' was Jesus, at Acts 3:20-23 (KJ/AV):



"And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you: 21Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things, which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began. 22For Moses truly said unto the fathers, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren, like unto me; him shall ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall say unto you. 23And it shall come to pass, that every soul, which will not hear that prophet, shall be destroyed from among the people."



So just as God Himself made Moses "a god"--"as God"--to both Pharoah and his brother, so Jesus is rightly, as the 'prophet like Moses', "a god--"as God"--as God's appointed representative, to both his enemies and his brothers, including Doubting Thomas:



"he is not ashamed to call them brethren, 12Saying, I will declare thy name unto my brethren, in the midst of the church will I sing praise unto thee." (Heb. 2:11-12 KJ/AV)



Also, if you check Strong's Exhaustive Concordance, under "God", using the reference numbers to refer you to "elohim" in the Hebrew dictionary in the back, you will find that even magistrates were called "elohim" or "god(s)" in the Bible, that this was normal and simply a gesture of respect, as we say, "Sir", from "Sire" (Father), out of respect.



Now I have a question for you. Since the Jewish Bible has God's name, "YHWH"--Jehovah or Yahweh in English, all 6,700 times where it occurs in the real, original Bible, why do most people insist on using a Bible that has taken God's name out of His own book and replaced it with merely a title, "the Lord," or "God," all or almost all of those 6,700 times?



Best regards,

Mike