Why didn't God answer Jesus when He asked "Why hast thou forsaken Me?!?!?!" ?

Question

Was it because God HAD, indeed, forsaken Jesus???

Answer 1

...I finally know what the song Chop Suey was about.



Truuuuuuuuuust iiiiiiiiiin myyyyyyyyyy

Self-righteous suiciiiiide!

IIIIIIIIIIIII cryyyyyyyyy

When angels desvere to diiiiieeee!

Answer 2

Jesus is God. Jesus was quoting Psalm 22.



Whenever Jesus talked to God, He addressed Him as Father not God.



He did not say, "My Father, My Father, why have you forsaken me."



Psalm 22 was written a 1000 years before the crucifizion by David. Jesus quoted the entire Psalm while dying, fulfilling prophecy.

Answer 3

At the moment of Jesus' death God had in fact forsaken Jesus. God allowed Him to suffer, die and be separated from the Father so that we might always be with God.

Answer 4

"Was it because God HAD, indeed, forsaken Jesus???"



I think that was the idea. Some people think that hell is just being seperated from God

Answer 5

Yes. When Jesus died, all our sin was placed on Him. God cannot look into the face of sin. He is too perfect. So therefore He did forsake Jesus. He was covered with our sin.

Answer 6

The teachings of the Church contradict the teachings of Jesus (pbuh) and that is the cause of the confusion.

Priests talk of trinity as "It is a Mystery, not explained by Jesus (pbuh) clearly", at that time again those forget that Jesus (pbuh) said,



"I spoke openly to the world. I always taught in synagogues and in the temple, where the Jews always meet, and in secret I have said nothing" (John 18:20 (NKJ)).



If trinity is confusing enough to be called a mystery, it cannot be from God. Because:

"God is not a God of confusion."—1 Corinthians 14:33, Revised Standard Version (RS).



There was no mystery in the message of Jesus (pbuh), nothing secret. Will you accept the priests' so called "mystery of trinity" and forget clear commandments of Jesus (pbuh)?



Jesus (pbuh) numerous times clearly not only told us about oneness of God, but also clearly told his that He is the only one, his God, our God, and your God, eg..



1) Mark 12:29: "the Lord our God, the lord is One".

2) Matthew 4:10 "You shall worship the Lord, your God, and him only you shall serve"

3) Matthew 27:46: "Eloi (Allah?) , Eloi, lama sabachthani?" -- which means, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"



Just not that, he proved it by worshipping Him only:

Metthew: 26:39: "He went a little farther and fell on His face and prayed"



Will you go by above clear commandments of Jesus, or will you follow interpretation of people on these vague words in KJV that people try to use in desperate attempt to prove divinity of Jesus:

eg following two verses are most often used by people who have already believed that Jesus is God / or one third of God, without even understanding Jesus teachings.



1) John 10:30 (KJV) "I and my Father are one."



You should also see where all " x + x are one" used in Bible to understand the perspective. eg,

"So keep them safe by the power of the name that you have given me. Then they will be one with each other, just as you and I are one."

"They will be saved with eachother, the way I am saved with you."



Does it mean that 11 deciphers were actually one?

It definately means one in purpose, that's all. (John 17:11 and 22). It is all upon how it has been translated.



2) 1 John 5:7-8

(KJV) For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.



But then people forget again, that it is a matter of translation from a dead language. As same verse has been translated in totally different way from the original also.



(RSV) [7] And the Spirit is the witness, because the Spirit is the truth. [8] There are three witnesses, the Spirit, the water, and the blood; and these three agree.

(NKJV) Footnote - NU-Text and M-Text omit the words from in heaven (verse 7) through on earth (verse 8). Only four or five very late manuscripts contain these words in Greek.

(1901 ASV) 7 And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is the truth.

and so many others , (NIV) 7 , (NWT) 7 , (NASV) 7 , (ESV) 7, (HCSB) 7 , (NAB-Roman Catholic) 7 ,(CEV) 7



Also people forget whether these verses are coming from original scripture or has been added to Bible.

John 5:7 ,,,, was thrown out of it in RSV. by 32 scholars of highest eminent, backed by 50 cooperating denominations.



G. W. and D. E. Anderson in his book "WHY 1 JOHN 5.7–8 IS IN THE BIBLE" mentions referring to different scholars:





All around us is scholarly argument against the inclusion of this passage. As John Stott says of verse 7,

The words do not occur in any Greek MS, version or quotation before the fifteenth century. They first appear in an obscure fourth-century Latin MS and found their way into the AV because Erasmus reluctantly included them in the third edition of his text. They are rightly absent even from the margin of RV and RSV. [4]



The trinity is a doctrine from about the year 325 AD, It has its roots in polytheism,



The New Catholic Encyclopedia - 1967, VOL. XIV, PAGE 299:

The formulation "one God in three Persons" was not solidly established, certainly not fully assimilated into Christian life and its profession of faith, PRIOR TO THE END OF THE 4TH CENTURY. But it is precisely this formulation that first claimed to title "The Trinitarian Dogma. AMONG THE APOSTOLIC FATHERS, THERE HAD BEEN NOTHING EVEN REMOTELY APPROACHING SUCH A MENTALITY OR PERSPECTIVE.



You should not accept the word “son” literally . Word "son" was used in bible for general human beings and other prophets also. "we all are the children of father in heavens" indicates that word "son" was used in different meaning of love and care. Mathew: 5:9. "Blessed are the peacemakers, for they will be called the sons of God.”





Quran: [4:171] O people of the scripture, do not transgress the limits of your religion, and do not say about GOD except the truth. The Messiah, Jesus (pbuh), the son of Mary, was a messenger of GOD, and His word that He had sent to Mary, and a revelat

Answer 7

one of the more puzzling things for many Christians is the plaintive question that Christ uttered on the cross in His cry of, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?"



Matthew 27:45-46



"Now from the sixth hour there was darkness over all the land unto the ninth hour.

And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?"

There are some critics who suggest that in these three hours of darkness, Christ had a moment of weakness where "as a human" He succumbed under the weight of His terrible suffering. Others surmise that Christ had lost all hope, and that His human soul was unable to fully understand why the father had abandoned Him. But none of this speculation has any sound support in the scriptures. They are all theories that are at odds with the Biblical facts. And this can be easily proven by a myriad of clear passages where Christ foretold His suffering. When we read "the whole" of scripture in context, not concentrating on a few select verses, we can see very quickly that Christ never faltered for one moment, and He knew perfectly well what He had to do and why He had to do it. He knew He had to suffer the wrath of God that He was forsaken and die for the elect. These things were not hid from Him. So these ideas that He was surprised make no sense, considering all that Christ Himself declared of His mission.

John 16:6-7



"But because I have said these things unto you, sorrow hath filled your heart.

Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you."

Christ knew that He had to go to the cross to suffer the wrath of God, and if He didn't, the election would not be comforted of the Holy Spirit. It was not a secret to Him that man would be healed by His stripes, indeed it was this knowledge that brought Him to Jerusalem. The nature of the "required" atonement wasn't a mystery to Him, it was a mystery to the people of Israel. For they (much like the Premillennialists today) expected a political king, an earthly kingdom, and a physical rather than spiritual deliverance. But Christ knew exactly what the nature of the sacrifice was, and how the true deliverance of Israel would take place. It would take place by Him drinking the bitter dregs of the judgment in the cup of His fury, which we deserved.

John 18:11



"Then said Jesus unto Peter, Put up thy sword into the sheath: the cup which my Father hath given me, shall I not drink it?"

It's a rhetorical question. Yes, it's a bitter cup that Christ knew that He had to drink for the sake of the elect. Even as the bitter vinegar that Christ drank signified, He "completed" or "finished" the task that He willingly went to the cross to accomplish.

John 19:30



"When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost."

Indeed, He certainly knew the cup He had to drink to accomplish His task, and He willingly drank it. And you will note that when they offered Him that vinegar "before the time" of completion, He would not drink of it (Matthew 27:33-34). The reason that He would not drink at this time is because it was the beginning, and His work was not yet "finished." This is what His "receiving" the cup of Vinegar just before saying it is Finished signified. It was a sign of the completion of His work and the accomplishment of the cross.

So if this is all true, then how do we answer the objection of why Jesus prayed, "O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me." And why did He cry, "My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me" when He already knew perfectly well? The answer is that all these things were said and done of God for "man's benefit." He wasn't complaining as an eternal example of His own unusually weak (for God's people) fortitude or His delicate nature, or His frail humanity. He said these things as a reference key for us to unlock the words of the prophets and the psalms that spoke of these things. Christ is revealing to us by these comments that "He" was the God-Man prophesied to come as the Saviour of Israel. In other words, God is exhorting His people to search the scriptures and compare scripture with scripture. And therein we will "see" what these words He spoke signifies and pertains to.



Psalms 22:1



..My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? why art thou so far from helping me, and from the words of my roaring?"

When Christ called out to God in this manner, clearly He was consciously quoting this Psalm as an illustration to all that would come after, that He was fulfilling this Old Testament prophecy. This is the key to understanding why the Lord would say this. Jesus Christ, as the living "Word of God" in the flesh, is the application of God's revealed will concerning the atonement for si

Answer 8

I thought God & Jesus were one and the same according to the trinity concept. Wouldn't that make him schizophrenic?

Answer 9

No Jesus was quoting from psalm 22 he knew what was happaning but was telling the others around him.

Answer 10

So that the ennemies of God might think that Jesus lost.

Answer 11

How do you know He didn't? Just because it didn't get recorded doesn't mean that Jesus received no answer.

Answer 12

God did answer Jesus, but Jesus had heartened his heart toward god, so he couldn't hear him. Or at least that's the line used on us atheists.

Answer 13

Peace be upon you



The Holy Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) was indeed saved, though for Christians it is important that he was not saved, however the following proves he was not crucified http://www.jamaat.net/crux/crucifixion.html



Peace be upon you

Answer 14

He probably DID forsake jesus in a good way. He saved christians from thteir sins. :)

Answer 15

Its because God can't stand sin, and at that moment the sin of the world, our sins, where upon Christ.

Answer 16

Duh.



Vernon: I'm not sure I see the relevance of your question. God did indeed forsake His only begotten Son, thus the question asked aloud by the Son. That's why the "duh". I wasn't saying anything about me or you or anything else.

Answer 17

:"Father forgive them for they know not what they do". "It is finished" "Father into Thy Hands I commend my Spirit". The feeling of despair is NOT the same thing as consenting to it.

Answer 18

Gods don't answer questions or prayers because they don't exist.

Answer 19

"God" can't answer that question anymore than the "Tooth Fairy" can.

Answer 20

Beta_fish: "Duh"? Wow. If God could forsake his only begotten son, what makes you think you or I are worth a hill of spiritual beans?

Answer 21

Because 'he' doesn't exist.