Jehovah's Witness,another 2 questions please?

Question

In your Bible John 1:1 degrades Jesus to an " a god"

1)Did you realize that the NWT is the only Bible that does this?Does God need the Watchtower to correct His word for Him?

2)Also,since there is only one true God then all other "gods" are false right? Is Jesus a false "god" too?

Answer 1

Because Jehovah's Witnesses deny the deity of Jesus, they changed John 1: 1 to suit their theology. They took Westcott & Hort's translation and modified it to fit in with their beliefs. They are not the only ones to have done that. However, the fact of the matter is that Jesus is called God in:



Romans 9:5

Colossians 2:9

Titus 2:13

Hebrews 1:8-10



In the Old Testament, which is clear that there is only one God and one LORD, many references to the LORD (Yahweh) are applied to Jesus:



Romans 10:13 quotes Joel 2

Philippians 2:9-11 quotes Isaiah 45

John 12 quotes Isaiah 6

Hebrews 1:10-12 quotes Psalm 102

Ephesians 4:8 quotes Psalm 68



When Herod accepted the worship of the people and failed to give praise to God, he was struck down and came to a sticky end (Acts 12:20-24). But when Thomas said to Jesus "My Lord and my God!" Jesus commended him for his belief (John 20:28,29).



If Jesus is not God then it is blashphemy to worship him, or call on his name. So why did the risen Christ not strike Thomas dead when he fell to his knees and worshiped him?

Answer 2

Excuse me? But the NWT is NOT the only bible. The King James Bible is in fact the one holding the truth. And no, God doesn't need any fals and uninspired interpretation to correct His word. God's Word is infallible and perfect. Besides, haven't you notice how many times the Watchtower has contradict itself? It cannot be an "inspired" because the Watchtower Society keeps changing their interpretations.



And we believe there is God the father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit ALL in ONE. That's the Trinity.



Have you ever read the Bible before?

Answer 3

It is interesting that we keep asking the Jehovah's Witnesses and it is like us asking the blind to lead us and they have no idea what is right or wrong and only know what the watchtower organization tells them.

There is only ONE God known in the Bible and all the rest are false and Jesus Christ is God and unless you accept Him you will be going to the Lake of fire and watchtower cannot save you or help you from going to eternal separation from Jesus Christ who is the "I AM"

Answer 4

1) It is not the only but it is certainly one of the few. Does it make it right if everyone else does it? Or is the Accurate translation right no matter what.



The Watchtower doesn't correct his word. Huge misconception, it is an aid, to looks at specific topics in the bible and applies them to our lives today. Bible is the most important. WT is nothing more then a magnifying glass to direct you to what you are looking for in the bible. You can see it how you would like but that is how we, the ones actually reading the WT, see it.



2) If you worshiped Jesus as God you would be worshiping incorrectly. Jesus even said he didn't teach anything of his own, but taught what the father told him to. And when a disciple called him good, he asked why would you call me that, only the father is good.



Re: question 1). Read "Truth in Translation..." by Jason Beduhn. He is not affiliated with any particular translation but he takes on that very question.

Answer 5

You are incorrect. The NWT is not the only Bible to have rendered John 1:1 that way. Here are a few more:



1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.



1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.



1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.



1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.



1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.



1950: “and the Word was a god.” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.



1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.



1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.



1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.



At John 1:1 there are two occurrences of the Greek noun theos′ (god). The first occurrence refers to Almighty God, with whom the Word was (“and the Word was with God). This first theos′ is preceded by the word ton (the), a form of the Greek definite article that points to a distinct identity, in this case Almighty God (“and the Word was with [the] God”).



The second 'theos' (where it describes the Word), though is NOT preceded by the Greek word "ton". So a literal translation would read, “and god was the Word". So John 1:1 highlights the quality of the Word, that he was “divine,” “godlike,” “a god,” but not Almighty God. This harmonizes with the rest of the Bible, which shows that Jesus, here called “the Word” in his role as God’s Spokesman, was an obedient subordinate sent to earth by his Superior, Almighty God. Jesus himself said; 'I came to do, not my will, but the will of him that sent me'. (John 6:38) Also, the Bible clearly states that 'God loved the world so much that he gave his Son". (John 3:16) Jesus was sent by God. Jesus repeatedly said that God sent him forth. (John 4:34; 5:23, 24, 29, 37; John 17:3)



Does saying that Jesus Christ is “a god” conflict with the Bible’s teaching that there is only one God? No, for at times the Bible employs that term to refer to mighty creatures. Psalm 8:5 reads: “You also proceeded to make him [man] a little less than godlike ones [Hebrew, ’elo‧him′],” that is, angels. In Jesus’ defense against the charge of the Jews, that he claimed to be God, he noted that “the Law uses the word gods of those to whom the word of God was addressed,” that is, human judges. (John 10:34, 35, JB; Psalm 82:1-6) Even Satan is called “the god of this system of things” at 2 Corinthians 4:4.



Jesus has a position far higher than angels, imperfect men, or Satan. Since these are referred to as “gods,” mighty ones, surely Jesus can be and is “a god.” Because of his unique position in relation to Jehovah, Jesus is a “Mighty God. But only Jehovah is Almighty and only Jehovah is God in the fullest sense”—John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; Psalm 83:18

Answer 6

2)" if you worshiped Jesus as GOD ALMIGHTY you would be worshiping a False God."

Think before you talk. Jesus was NO false God. He was the Word of God and there is no false or lies in Him. Did this person just committed a blasphemous judgment on Christ Jesus our Lord and Savior? It sure is "Yes he/she did."

Answer 7

Come back when you have better arguments and true.

The NWT isn't the only Bible translation who says that Jesus is a god in John 1:1 (or of divine nature). Do some research.

http://209.85.135.104/search?q=cache:QWjpX6_umpIJ:en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logos+and+a+god+was+the+Word+Benjamin+Wilson&hl=ro&ct=clnk&cd=2&gl=ro



There are many gods but there is only one true Almighty God, Jehovah. Jesus is never called Almighty, but just "Mighty God".

Answer 8

Not exactly.



Several Bibles translate John 1:1 in a manner compatible with the phrase "the Word was a god". The Bible plainly teaches that Jesus is a god (John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; John 1:18). This biblical concept does not trouble any Christian, whether he be trinitarian or nontrinitarian. Yet, for centuries, trinitarians have tended to reject any alternate translation of John 1:1.



Trinitarians must recognize that it was three or four hundred years after Christ's impalement that a minority of self-described "Christians" decided that Jesus was the only god, God Almighty (Jehovah). By the time the King James Version translated John 1:1 into English as "the Word was God", the year was 1611. How interesting it would be to see a translation from Greek (which contained no indefinite article "a") into English (with its indefinite articles "a", "an") performed by early Christians, perhaps the children or grandchildren of those who walked with the apostles!



We do have such a translation, but into the Coptic language, which uses indefinite articles as English does.. .. How do the Coptic manuscripts phrase John 1:1?



"...and the Word was a God."

http://copticjohn.com/

http://jehovah.to/exe/translation/coptic.pdf

http://depts.washington.edu/cartah/text_archive/coptic/coptjohn.shtml





The Bible makes perfect sense when it is being read honestly. John 1:1 is perfectly harmonious with the rest of the bible, which teaches plainly that Jesus Christ the Son is a distinct person from Jehovah God the Father. The Scriptures teach that the Almighty created Jesus as His firstborn son.



(Colossians 1:15) the firstborn of all creation



(Mark 10:18) Jesus said to him: 'Why do you call me good? Nobody is good, except one, God.



(Revelation 3:14) the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God



(Philippians 2:5-6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God



(John 8:42) Neither have I come of my own initiative at all, but that One sent me forth



(John 12:49) I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak



(John 14:28) I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am



(1 Corinthians 15:28) But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him



(Matthew 20:23) this sitting down at my right hand and at my left is not mine to give, but it belongs to those for whom it has been prepared by my Father



(1 Corinthians 11:3) I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; ...in turn the head of the Christ is God



(John 20:17) I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.



(Deuteronomy 6:4) Jehovah our God is one Jehovah



(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him



Thanks again for an opportunity to share what the bible actually says about the distinct persons of Jesus Christ the Son and Jehovah God the Father!

Answer 9

Although I am not a JW, I know ancient Greek. Let me help you out here with the grammar. In English we use the indefinte article 'a/an' before nouns. "I am a doctor." In Greek they don't really use it. They just say "I am doctor." But when translating into English we put the 'a' back in.

Let's look at it as it was originally writen: Εν αρχη ην ο Λογος, και ο Λογος ην προς ΤΟΝ Θεον, και Θεος ην ο Λογος. I have capitalized the 'THE' for the first reference of God (Θεον) is not speaking generally, it's saying THE GOD. The second reference of the word Θεος or god lacks the definite article, which means, to anyone who knows Greek, that in order to translate into English, one must put an 'a' there.

Answer 10

I totally agree with you C.



The JWs have some of the bible interpreted correctly; not following the Roman church's false Christianity of pagan rituals and image worship.



But, the JWs are no better, because they too have changed the Word of God as well as falsely predicted the second coming of the Lord.



God Bless You!