When Joseph first translated the Book of Mormon, he admitted it was not perfect as he did it. It was subject to the errors of men. (BTW, I have never heard the "letter by letter" statement.) Thus, errors and typos were corrected as subsequent editions were published.
The change you refer to actually dates to 1837. Joseph Smith made the change in the 1837 edition of the Book of Mormon, though it was not carried through in some other editions, which mistakenly followed the 1830 instead of Joseph’s change. (No computers for text comparison back then!) It was restored in the 1981 edition, but that was nearly 150 years after the change was made by Joseph.
I go with the pure and delightsome version. I think this is what the original author in the Book of Mormon meant.
This issue has been discussed extensively in the Church's magazines (e.g. the Ensign), and the scholarly publication BYU Studies.
Edit: Wow, Chad. You are so far off course here that I don't even know where to begin! Do you just make this stuff up as you go along?
1st - You can't even spell "Lamanites" correctly, so I doubt you got the rest of it right.
2nd - I have several copies of different editions of the Book of Mormon here, and NONE of them have a "Forward". I have looked through all of them and I can't find the text you mentioned. Also have a brand new BofM here, nothing in that even close to what you claim.
3rd - "The Lamenites are the primary descendants of the American Indians." Are you retarded? Descendents are the generations that FOLLOW!!! If this is really what was put in the "Forward" of the Book of Mormon, it would have read that the "The Lamanites are the primary ANCESTORS of the American Indians"!! Dang, dude, you can't even make stuff up correctly!
4th - The whole DNA thing has been so completely debunked that it's laughable that you would even bring it up any more! Do your research, don't just spew invective.
New edit: Since truth_plain_and_simple does not accept email, I'll just post the address for all to see to regarding his challenge.. Obviously, I cannot produce a copy of the 1837 Book fo Mormon on a website, but this scholarly article will easily address the question: http://www.geocities.com/marcschindler1/vignette.htm
Best answer, please? (I need the points!!!!!)
Newer edit -
Chad: My initial point is still, so what? The introduction to the Book of Mormon is not scripture, and has never claimed to be such. This doesn't take away from the truthfulness of the book at all. The old statement was not doctrine, and neither is this new one.
Again, plain-truth and Chad, PLEASE do your research instead of just screaming accusations, most of them inaccurate, the rest skewed, and then retreat when presented with the facts. The "pure" translation was included in the 1837, 1841, 1852, 1879 and 1920 editions, and the 1981 edition finally cleared everything up. For a scholarly look at this, go to:
http://www.geocities.com/marcschindler1/vignette.htm (Of course, I doubt Chad will look it up. That would involve reading, sometimes requiring understanding of polysyllabic words, and he likes to get his research from youtube.)
Chad, what you really mean by the freethinking crack is that I refuse to believe in a limited worldview of the truth like you. Those of us who are free thinkers also understand the value of an education, otherwise, it's easy to be deceived by televangelists and such. It is my freethinking approach that allows me to accept the fullness of the gospel and to receive its blessings, instead of shutting myself off in a little ignorant bubble. Education is critical to freethinking. You might consider getting one.