I never saw any Son of Man In the OT or NT in the Ancient Unedited Bibles. Did You?

Question

Son of man' is the translation of various Hebrew and Greek phrases used in the Bible. It has diverse meanings, ranging from a normal human being to a prophesied eternal, divine ruler ( I never saw this
IN THE GREEK ..
I Did See . Son of God.. And a Virgin shall Bear a Son and his name will be EMMANUEL ( OT

SB in Religion and Spirituality
I in Isaih 7.14 and NT .Matthew 1,23

Answer 1

As I don't read Greek I can't comment on the phrase "Son of Man" being in scripture but I would accept your word- the question now is why is it in there? Is this something that popped up in the west due to Saint Jerome's lack of language skills? The man was piously motivated but not exactly an A student with languages.

Answer 2

It does appear in the Greek....translated, as the note indicates, from a Greek phrase



I use Westcott & Hort here, which is based on the oldest and best available manuscripts. "Son of mankind" appears in each of these passages. I didn't bother looking for any more, as there were so very many and 3 should be sufficient to make the point:



Mat 8:20

http://www.qbible.com/greek-new-testament/matthew/8.html



Mat 9:6

http://www.qbible.com/greek-new-testament/matthew/9.html



Mat 10:23

http://www.qbible.com/greek-new-testament/matthew/10.html



etc.

Answer 3

90 Verses says: Jesus is not God

The Bible says God had many ‘sons’

First, most people think there are no other verses that contradict or give equal divine sonship to other persons in the Old or New Testament.



For Jesus to be called son of God, does not make him a true son of God, other wise Adam, Jacob, Ephraim and many more should also be considered as been sons of God as such they should be worshiped too according to such method.



Adam: ‘Adam, which was the son of God.’ (Luke 3:38)

Jacob is God’s son and firstborn: ‘Israel is my son, even my firstborn.’ (Exodus 4:22)



Solomon: ‘I will be his father, and he shall be my son.’ (2 Samuel 7:13-14)



Ephraim: ‘for I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is my firstborn.’ (Jeremiah 31:9)



is God’s firstborn, common people are called the sons of God: ‘Ye are the children of the Lord your God’ (Deuteronomy 14:1)

Answer 4

It is NOT "the Son of Man"! Quit capitalizing Man! It is written "the Son of man", that is short form for "THE SON (of God) of man (or human)". "THE SON" because Jesus was and is God's ONLY begotten Son that is why it is NOT written "a Son of man" . Jesus had half-brothers so "the Son" would not be accurate if referring to his earthly family. As you can plainly see in all these verses copy and pasted from the KJV, ONLY "Son" has a capital "S", "man" has a small "m" for a reason. It does not say "a Son of a man" or "a Son of man" but " THE SON - of man", "of man" because Jesus had an eartly woman as His mother which made Him human with flesh and blood.



M't:8:20: And Jesus saith unto him, The foxes have holes, and the birds of the air have nests; but the Son of man hath not where to lay his head.

M't:9:6: But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house.

M't:10:23: But when they persecute you in this city, flee ye into another: for verily I say unto you, Ye shall not have gone over the cities of Israel, till the Son of man be come.

M't:11:19: The Son of man came eating and drinking, and they say, Behold a man gluttonous, and a winebibber, a friend of publicans and sinners. But wisdom is justified of her children.

M't:12:8: For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.

M't:12:32: And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the world to come.

M't:12:40: For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.

M't:13:37: He answered and said unto them, He that soweth the good seed is the Son of man;

M't:13:41: The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity;

M't:16:13: When Jesus came into the coasts of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, saying, Whom do men say that I the Son of man am?

M't:16:27: For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.



Deity of Jesus Christ

Joh:1:1: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Joh:1:2: The same was in the beginning with God.



Joh:1:14: And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Answer 5

In Hebrew this is mainly a translation of the expression ben-ʼa·dham′. Instead of referring to the person, Adam, ʼa·dham′ is here used generically for “mankind” so that the expression ben-ʼa·dham′ means, in essence, “a son of mankind, a human, an earthling son.” (Ps 80:17; 146:3; Jer 49:18, 33) The phrase is often employed in parallel with other Hebrew terms for “man,” namely, ʼish, meaning “a male person” (compare Nu 23:19; Job 35:8; Jer 50:40) and ʼenohsh′, “a mortal man.” (Compare Ps 8:4; Isa 51:12; 56:2.) At Psalm 144:3 the “son of mortal man” is ben-ʼenohsh′, while the Aramaic equivalent (bar ʼenash′) appears at Daniel 7:13.

In Greek the expression is hui·os′ tou an·thro′pou, the latter part of the phrase representing the Greek generic word for “man” (an′thro·pos).—Mt 16:27.

In the Hebrew Scriptures the most frequent occurrence of the expression is in the book of Ezekiel, where over 90 times God addresses the prophet as “son of man.” (Eze 2:1, 3, 6, 8) The designation as so used apparently serves to emphasize that the prophet is simply an earthling, thus heightening the contrast between the human spokesman and the Source of his message, the Most High God. The same designation is applied to the prophet Daniel at Daniel 8:17.

Christ Jesus, “the Son of Man” In the Gospel accounts the expression is found nearly 80 times, applying in every case to Jesus Christ, being used by him to refer to himself. (Mt 8:20; 9:6; 10:23) The occurrences outside the Gospel accounts are at Acts 7:56; Hebrews 2:6; and Revelation 1:13; 14:14.

Jesus’ application of this expression to himself clearly showed that God’s Son was now indeed a human, having ‘become flesh’ (Joh 1:14), having ‘come to be out of a woman’ through his conception and birth to the Jewish virgin Mary. (Ga 4:4; Lu 1:34-36) Hence he had not simply materialized a human body as angels had previously done; he was not an incarnation but was actually a ‘son of mankind’ through his human mother.—Compare 1Jo 4:2, 3; 2Jo 7.

For this reason the apostle Paul could apply Psalm 8 as prophetic of Jesus Christ. In his letter to the Hebrews (2:5-9), Paul quoted the verses reading: “What is mortal man [ʼenohsh′] that you keep him in mind, and the son of earthling man [ben-ʼa·dham′] that you take care of him? You also proceeded to make him a little less than godlike ones [“a little lower than angels,” at Hebrews 2:7], and with glory and splendor you then crowned him. You make him dominate over the works of your hands; everything you have put under his feet.” (Ps 8:4-6; compare Ps 144:3.) Paul shows that, to fulfill this prophetic psalm, Jesus indeed was made “a little lower than angels,” becoming actually a mortal “son of earthling man,” that he might die as such and thereby “taste death for every man,” thereafter being crowned with glory and splendor by his Father, who resurrected him.—Heb 2:8, 9; compare Heb 2:14; Php 2:5-9.

The designation “Son of man,” therefore, also serves to identify Jesus Christ as the great Kinsman of mankind, having the power to redeem them from bondage to sin and death, as well as to identify him as the great Avenger of blood.—Le 25:48, 49; Nu 35:1-29.

Thus, Jesus’ being called the “Son of David” (Mt 1:1; 9:27) emphasizes his being the heir of the Kingdom covenant to be fulfilled in David’s line; his being called the “Son of man” calls attention to his being of the human race by virtue of his fleshly birth; his being called the “Son of God” stresses his being of divine origin, not descended from the sinner Adam or inheriting imperfection from him but having a fully righteous standing with God.—Mt 16:13-17.

insight on the scriptures

Answer 6

Jesus IS God... He has always been there.



the reason we see Son of God in the new testament is because He came to earth. He didn't become 'Son of Man' until mary gave birth to Him in the flesh

Answer 7

Matthew 8:20 (and many other places) have:



ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπου



There are no 'unedited Bibles' - the Codex Sinaiticus already has multiple interpolations.



You don't seem to have a clue.



Go back to church.