Question:
In joh 1-1 the word was god.He was god in the old test.came forth in the new.philippian 2/5-6-7-8.joh1-10.GEN1?
2012-12-10 17:18:15 UTC
Jesus cliam 2be god and man.but there is only one ture god.there a diffent between being god and man and being god .they where the same in the old test.joh 14/7.and joh16/27-28.and joh 17/5.philip 2/5-6-7-8.there many more ,jesus and god were the same in the old test,man can not save man the the blood of the man god jesus royal and holy with out sin ,. god said all have sined jesus was much much more than man he was god in the old testa,
Three answers:
?
2012-12-10 17:55:02 UTC
John 1:1



New International Version (NIV)

The Word Became Flesh



1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2 He was with God in the beginning.



So God was with God in the beginning?



This is why Jesus said no man has seen God at anytime?



John 1:18



King James Version (KJV)



18 No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.



There are holes in you reasoning.



Who was it that spoke to Jesus? Was Jesus speaking to himself? In this verse prove that Jesus is speaking to himself. You did say Jesus and God is the same person now prove your claim.



Matthew 3:17 Look! Also, there was a voice from the heavens that said: “This is my Son, the beloved, whom I have approved.”
2012-12-10 19:23:01 UTC
I would like english subtitles.I do not know what you are talking about.
?
2012-12-11 07:54:51 UTC
read this first

http://refutetrinity.blogspot.com


This content was originally posted on Y! Answers, a Q&A website that shut down in 2021.
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