Greetings,
This is an illogical question on many levels. I was not going to respond but I am compelled because of the extreme ignorance demonstrated in many of the answers.
First, ALL translations add words that are not in the original language texts. It is impossible to do so in translating from one language to the other and have a clear rendering. The reason the NWT adds words is for the same reasons ALL other translations (even interlinears) add them.
The use of brackets, italics or other devices is NOT a translation issue but a technical one. They have no bearing on whether the version is accurate or not. Why the words were added is a translation issue and it has been proved many times even on this forum that the bracketed words in the NWT were ALWAYS legitimately added in full accord with meaning of the original text and according to valid translation principles.
Second, *other* translations use a different technical method to note words added to the original texts to make the meaning clear. For example the KJV uses italics the NIV uses half brackets.
Third, many other translations have NEVER used any method to notify where they added words to the text or they are VERY inconsistent in doing so. So criticism of the NWT for removing them is hypocritical and dishonestly selective.
Fourth, the use of brackets in the Bible for this purpose is not original to the NWT but goes at least as far back as the 1500's! And even many Scholars’ Greek texts use brackets (or some other method) to notify the reader of added words.
“Cader” is correct when he says “Brackets interfere with reading, they interrupt the reader's perceptual flow more than more subtle effects like italicisation.” But it also can be equally said that “italics interfere with reading...more than not using them at all.” And this is one of the reasons why the NWT has removed them in the readers edition!
The primary reason for removing them was because the added words in the NWT were always inherent in the original text. That is, they were just added to make the original sense clear so it is unnecessary for the normal Bible reader to be distracted. The only need for them is for those interested in deeper translational research. That is why so many translations do not use any such technical devices in their popular versions. Normally people must buy a “Scholar’s” or “Study” edition for such notations.
Therefore the NWT cannot properly be criticized for removing the brackets in their readers edition (they remain in the study edition).
Now to address some specific assertions which require us readers to be grossly ignorant:
Claiming that the reason the NWT adds the definite article “the” to 1Pt.1:1 was because they wanted to “overcome an obvious Greek construction that identifies Jesus as God” requires us to be very ignorant of the Greek grammar and other translations. For example is this the reason that the ASV also added the definite article to 1Pt.1:1 just like the NWT?!! See also the NRSV, NAB and Translator's New Testament footnotes).
Saying that removing the brackets from where the NWT added the word “other” “would make their translation completely untruthful” is also just as ignorant of a statement. Does it make other translations “completely untruthful” when they add the word “other” (and/or similar words) and do not place them in italics or brackets?!! (See Lk. 11:42; 21:29 in TEV, NAB, NIV).
Is it “scholastic dishonesty” for a literal translation to add words without letting the reader know? What about the NRSV which is an acclaimed literal version? Is it dishonest when it adds the word “other” to Lk.13:4 and 2Cor.9:13 without letting the reader know?!!!
Next, comparing the NWT to the KJV and saying that it has “changed or removed many scriptures” is an exceptionally uneducated statement. Claiming that this was a case of “trying to deceive” is ludicrous. Are almost ALL modern translations “trying to deceive” when they do not read the same as the KJV?!! Such a “KJV Only” outlook is devoid of common logic and knowledge.
The personal opinion that the NWT is not an accurate translation has been disproved many times even on this forum! If anyone cared to cite a specific example instead of just giving their biased opinions they would find that in EVERY case the NWT has been proved to be accurate. In fact, in most cases other non-Witness translations have translated them exactly the same way! Are these other translators also trying to defend the Witness doctrines?!!!
As usual, any criticism of the NWT demands an ignorance from hearers of the Greek words, grammar, and semantics according to standard Greek Lexicons and Dictionaries.
Yours,
BAR-ANERGES
EDIT:
Stay on topic; were talking about words *added* in translation which are NOT found in the source language. The first two links I posted give evidence that "other" is inherently understood by the grammar and context.