Question:
Why does the Bible mention a place from Greek mythology?
2013-03-05 20:29:04 UTC
Although it's usually translated as "Hell," why does 2 Peter 2:4 mention angels being cast into Tartarus? In Greek mythology, Tartarus is where Zeus imprisoned the Titans after he defeated them. Why would the Bible invoke a place so specific to Greek mythology?

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Peter%202:4&version=YLT
Eighteen answers:
Rick
2013-03-05 20:59:27 UTC
Because the story that he is referring to is a myth.



It is from 1 Enoch
Larry D
2013-03-06 04:47:25 UTC
Your quoting from the Young's Literal Translation bible. I have yet to meet a Christian who has read that version let alone heard of it. As you noted, it is usually translated as hell. Actually I think Young is the only one that used the word Tartars.



So the answer to your question is the bible does communicate the same thing without invoking Greek mythology, yes.
james o
2013-03-06 04:40:44 UTC
By the time the texts were being written, writing good classical Greek was the rage. Hellenism was a real big thing ever since Big Al conquered the world a few centuries before.



The whole point of the afterlife is really confused in scripture. It just doesn't exist in most of the Hebrew Bible. But, wait! Saul calls up the shade of Samuel. But maybe that's seen as a literary device, since there's nothing cooler than for a doomed man to get his doom told to him by a person already passed over to the other side.



Hell is never clearly defined. It's different things to different folks. No surprise, then, that some writer uses some Greek literary references such as the one you mention.



I don't believe in an error-free Bible, so such blathering by various writers is not a problem for me.



I would respectfully suggest that you not take anything in the Bible literally, but then if one tries to see the Bible as literary forms and poetry and metaphor (and it is surely all of those things!) then it is hard to come down on one side on any question of "What exactly does it mean?"



Sorry. It's hard to read the Bible as symbolic, metaphorical uncertain material. Today everybody wants certainty!



"Spare me your literary gems and poetry and feel-good/feel-bad literature and such! Just tell me exactly what's what. I'll throw the rest away."



I can tell you only that it doesn't work that way, and I don't see any sign of any change coming soon.
Роберт
2013-03-06 04:41:45 UTC
.

In the New Testament, the noun Tartarus does not occur but tartaroo (ταρταρόω, "throw to Tartarus"), a shortened form of the classical Greek verb kata-tartaroo ("throw down to Tartarus"), does appear in 2 Peter 2:4.

2 Peter 2:4 seems to show the meaning to be a holding place for sinful angels until their judgment is exercised.



It has absolutely NOTHING to do with the Greek myth (which is FICTION, anyway.)
Delusion Crusher 10000
2013-03-06 04:40:35 UTC
That's Young's Literal Translation. The import is the same. Just because Greek Mythology uses the same word--a Greek word--is coincidental. The New Testament was largely written in Greek.



The Bible is the written Word of the only true and living God of the universe, regardless of how it's translated.
Arch
2013-03-06 04:37:12 UTC
Because The New Testament was written in the Koine Greek. The name "Tartarus" just means "The deepest regions of the Underworld". The concept of The Underworld existed in the ancient Hebrew language as well. The word was "Sheol" rather than "Hades".



It is merely the Greek language that is being used, not Greek mythology.
Steve
2013-03-06 04:31:37 UTC
Because it was written in Greek, for an audience that would have been far more familiar with Greek mythology than the mythology of a moderately obscure kingdom on the fringe of Roman society. Better to use a word that they would understand, than make up a new word entirely and have to explain it.



You write to your audience...persuasion 101.
PhotonX
2013-03-06 04:32:32 UTC
I didn't remember that, and so had to look it up. I only have the King James Version I was raised with, and it doesn't use the word 'Tartarus', but just says 'hell'
2013-03-06 04:34:38 UTC
Because all the different people's had their words for Things Places or Gods. The Bible came after and incorporated local terminology.
Gregory
2013-03-06 04:42:01 UTC
it doesn't mention Greek mythology you have the wrong interpretation



it mentions a place where angels were cast into to be held until the day of judgment



peter used the greek word which expresses the ideal of such a place of judgment



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tartarus#Biblical_Pseudepigrapha
Umie
2013-03-06 04:43:22 UTC
Hell is a state of becoming to those who live with evil intentions towards others.

It is the law of Karma. What you sow you reap as Christ said. Heaven is a state of becoming also.What you sow you reap. By whatever name you call it.
?
2013-03-06 04:39:01 UTC
Because each new religion will borrow some aspect from an old religion.

Just like Christians have borrowed some Pagan beliefs.
servant of God
2013-03-06 04:38:52 UTC
Tartarus is not in the bible.





2Pe 2:4 For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, but sent them to hell, putting them into gloomy dungeons to be held for judgment;
Racer
2013-03-06 04:33:42 UTC
The word myth and mythology meanings: a person or thing whose existence is fictional or unproven. Same as the bible....just a myth.
Atarah Derek
2013-03-06 04:31:13 UTC
Hades, actually. Refers to the underworld and was the best word picture the writers could paint for their predominately Greek audience.
.,,.
2013-03-06 04:29:41 UTC
Hell doesn't exist. It's just a scare tactic. The Christians stole it from other mythologies.
2013-03-06 04:33:50 UTC
We know Hell exists. IT couldn't be more certain. The Greeks knew it too.
2013-03-06 04:30:11 UTC
No doubt an editing oversight when being revised from previous editions.


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