‘Son of God is a better description for Jesus than Son of Man.’ Do you agree?

Question

This has been bugging me for quite a while. If Jesus is the Son of God, then why does he use 'Son of Man', and which is a better description of him?

Answer 1

Jesus is referred to as the “Son of Man” 88 times in the New Testament. A first meaning of the phrase “Son of Man” is as a reference to the prophecy of Daniel 7:13-14, “In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.” The description “Son of Man” was a Messianic title. Jesus is the One who was given dominion and glory and a kingdom. When Jesus used this phrase, He was assigning the Son of Man prophecy to Himself. The Jews of that era would have been intimately familiar with the phrase and to whom it referred. Jesus was proclaiming Himself as the Messiah.



A second meaning of the phrase “Son of Man” is that Jesus was truly a human being. God called the prophet Ezekiel “son of man” 93 times. God was simply calling Ezekiel a human being. A son of a man is a man. Jesus was fully God (John 1:1), but He was also a human being (John 1:14). First John 4:2 tells us, “This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God.” Yes, Jesus was the Son of God—He was in His essence God. Yes, Jesus was also the Son of Man—He was in His essence a human being. In summary, the phrase “Son of Man” indicates that Jesus is the Messiah and that He is truly a human being.



Recommended Resources: Logos Bible Software and Jesus: The Greatest Life of All by Charles Swindoll.



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Jesus is not God’s Son in the sense of a human father and a son. God did not get married and have a son. God did not mate with Mary and, together with her, produce a son. Jesus is God’s Son in the sense that He is God made manifest in human form (John 1:1, 14). Jesus is God's Son in that He was conceived in Mary by the Holy Spirit. Luke 1:35 declares, “The angel answered, 'The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God.’”



During His trial before the Jewish leaders, the High Priest demanded of Jesus, “I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Christ, the Son of God” (Matthew 26:63). “’Yes, it is as you say,’ Jesus replied. ‘But I say to all of you: In the future you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven’” (Matthew 26:64). The Jewish leaders responded by accusing Jesus of blasphemy (Matthew 26:65-66). Later, before Pontius Pilate, “The Jews insisted, ‘We have a law, and according to that law He must die, because He claimed to be the Son of God’” (John 19:7). Why would His claiming to be the Son of God be considered blasphemy and be worthy of a death sentence? The Jewish leaders understood exactly what Jesus meant by the phrase “Son of God.” To be the Son of God is to be of the same nature as God. The Son of God is “of God.” The claim to be of the same nature as God—to in fact be God—was blasphemy to the Jewish leaders; therefore, they demanded Jesus’ death, in keeping with Leviticus 24:15. Hebrews 1:3 expresses this very clearly, “The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of His being.”

Answer 2

Both are a great description of His person; one is not necessarily better than the other, because both represent who He is as a person. He used these terms interchangeably to describe Himself, because He is both Son of God, and Son of Man; as it relates to His humanity. Son of God, because He is the Word that was made flesh, thus begotten by God the Father. Son of Man, because He was born of a woman, thus identifying Himself with humanity. He is therefore 100% God, and 100% Man, thus He is the God/Man.

Answer 3

Son of man and Son of God

Answer 4

Christianity at the time of the writing of the gospels was not as uniform as it was to be 500 years later. There were many pictures of Jesus and many explanations of the meaning of his coming. It is best to read each presentation as one community's views rather than assume that they can be conflated into one consistent presentation.



Thus both describe him. Son of Man is actually more puzzling than son of God because son of God was used in Roman society as well as among the Jews of the day. Son of Man rarely occurs in scripture and all kinds of speculation as to its meaning is made.



Do a basic reading on Christologies of the various gospels and of Paul and the term "Son of Man" in relationship to Christologies.

Answer 5

He was both the Son of God and he son of man. He was flesh and Spirit. He was God and man.



And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory. - 1 Timothy 3:16

Answer 6

Basically it means that even though we are flesh, born of man, we can if we want elevate our thinking patterns to coordinate more with the higher ideals put forth by God and that makes us His children. The determinant factor in all this is the will to follow His way. That makes us more His Sons and Daughters than anything.

Answer 7

God wants us to recognize Jesus as both.

Jesus, a Divine Being, was born of woman,

Man is just another way of saying 'human',

Jesus was born of a human, not simply be-

ing human himself, but also God, therefore,

Jesus is BOTH "Son of God" and "Son of

(hu)Man".

Answer 8

"Son of Man" in the original language, had a different meaning.



When a Jewish boy turned 12, he had a "Bar-Mitzvah". Bar meaning Son, and mitzvah, meaning "of the law".



So, when he turned 12, and became legally responsible for his own actions, he was called a "son of the law".



It was used in the same method that we would say "Mr. Smith has a (master's) degree in Biology", back then, they'd say Mr. Smith is a "Son of Biology".



A police officer, (carrying a nightstick), would be the "son of the stick".



A baker, the "son of flour" (or something to that effect).



When Christ said "Son of Man" he was signifying he had mastered the art of being human, experiencing the full depth of human suffering, no less.



I suppose you could also read into it, and imply He was emphasizing his incarnation (taking on human form).

Answer 9

Jesus by no ability advance into the Almighty God yet Jesus advance into the 1st born of all creations , Gods in basic terms begotten son , the only introduction by God promptly by himself all else God created via Jesus. in the worldwide Jesus advance right into a messenger of God . Col a million:15-17 15 he's same to the invisible God, the firstborn over all introduction. sixteen For by him all issues have been created: issues in heaven and in the worldwide, seen and invisible, no rely if thrones or powers or rulers or government; all issues have been created by him and for him. 17 he's before all issues, and in him all issues carry at the same time. in basic terms as a component be conscious while God first created Jesus advance into his call Jesus ? if so why is the call Jesus no longer interior the OT ?( i visit ask this question this night )

Answer 10

jesus called himself son of man (i know, what a nickname to give yourself) but he did this to show that he was just like us and that he is equal and loves us. Son of god makes him seem more important and Jesus did not want to be seen as this as Christianity is supposed to be a religion for everyone no matter what your backround is- this is why shepherds and wise men were used in the Christmas story

Answer 11

Jesus uses the description "Son of Man" because he was referring back to a prophecy found at Daniel 7:13,14 in which Daniel says that "someone like a son of man" will be brought before the "Ancient of Days" (a title for God) and be given the kingdom of God. When Daniel says "someone like a son of man," Daniel is saying that the one that will be given the kingdom of God will resemble a human male (a son of man). This specific prophecy, however, obviously refers to the Messiah, so by calling himself the Son of Man Jesus is claiming to be the Messiah.





The second reason that the term "Son of Man" applies to Jesus is because it describes the purpose of the Messiah; just like a son honors his father by working for his father out of love, Jesus works for all humans out of love, giving of himself for our benefit. The term "Son of Man" therefore describes Jesus and one of his biggest reasons for giving his life for us: he loves us and would do what we need of him, just as a son would a father.



But being called the Son of Man does not negate his also being the Son of God; that term "Son of God" also describes him and his purpose, since he also does what he does out of love for his Father, in this case not humans in general but God.

Answer 12

We are all a reflection of God, so he is the son of God the father and a son of man, the God within us.



Within each of us there is God, whether we believe in it or not. God is the creator, he is our conscience, he is us and we are God.



That is my understanding of Jesus, son of man.

Answer 13

Camille nailed it.



It is dangerous to get into a mindset of which on is better. Jesus is both fully God and fully man (not 50/50). When we start emphasizing one aspect over the other, it leads to heresy (anything from Arianism to Modalism).



So, both titles are fine and they each have a purpose, but they are equal titles.

Answer 14

He used the son of man phrase to express his weakness. I believe it was the prophet Jeremiah that used the same phase a lot.

Answer 15

Both. Son of Man designates His human side and Son of God His divinity. He became human to relate to people and communicate with them in a way that wasn't so frightening.





http://www.armageddonangelsufos.com Use IE, BING, MSN incompatible with Mozilla Firefox. Blank spaces must be highlighted to see.

Answer 16

Neither. Both are true and both have different connotations and deeper meanings. There are also a bunch of other names assigned to him throughout Scripture.

Answer 17

He is both - completely and equally. His Father was 100% God. His mother was 100% human.

Answer 18

Jesus has been Son of God for eternity, He was Son of Man while on earth and Son of God since he was fully man and fully God while on earth.



http://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-Son-of-Man.html

Jesus is referred to as the “Son of Man” 88 times in the New Testament. A first meaning of the phrase “Son of Man” is as a reference to the prophecy of Daniel 7:13-14, “In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.” The description “Son of Man” was a Messianic title. Jesus is the One who was given dominion and glory and a kingdom. When Jesus used this phrase, He was assigning the Son of Man prophecy to Himself. The Jews of that era would have been intimately familiar with the phrase and to whom it referred. Jesus was proclaiming Himself as the Messiah.



A second meaning of the phrase “Son of Man” is that Jesus was truly a human being. God called the prophet Ezekiel “son of man” 93 times. God was simply calling Ezekiel a human being. A son of a man is a man. Jesus was fully God (John 1:1), but He was also a human being (John 1:14). First John 4:2 tells us, “This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God.” Yes, Jesus was the Son of God—He was in His essence God. Yes, Jesus was also the Son of Man—He was in His essence a human being. In summary, the phrase “Son of Man” indicates that Jesus is the Messiah and that He is truly a human being.



http://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-Son-of-God.html

Jesus is not God’s Son in the sense of a human father and a son. God did not get married and have a son. God did not mate with Mary and, together with her, produce a son. Jesus is God’s Son in the sense that He is God made manifest in human form (John 1:1, 14). Jesus is God's Son in that He was conceived in Mary by the Holy Spirit. Luke 1:35 declares, “The angel answered, 'The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called the Son of God.’”



During His trial before the Jewish leaders, the High Priest demanded of Jesus, “I charge you under oath by the living God: Tell us if you are the Christ, the Son of God” (Matthew 26:63). “’Yes, it is as you say,’ Jesus replied. ‘But I say to all of you: In the future you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven’” (Matthew 26:64). The Jewish leaders responded by accusing Jesus of blasphemy (Matthew 26:65-66). Later, before Pontius Pilate, “The Jews insisted, ‘We have a law, and according to that law He must die, because He claimed to be the Son of God’” (John 19:7). Why would His claiming to be the Son of God be considered blasphemy and be worthy of a death sentence? The Jewish leaders understood exactly what Jesus meant by the phrase “Son of God.” To be the Son of God is to be of the same nature as God. The Son of God is “of God.” The claim to be of the same nature as God—to in fact be God—was blasphemy to the Jewish leaders; therefore, they demanded Jesus’ death, in keeping with Leviticus 24:15. Hebrews 1:3 expresses this very clearly, “The Son is the radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of His being.”



Another example can be found in John 17:12 where Judas is described as the “son of perdition.” John 6:71 tells us that Judas was the son of Simon. What does John 17:12 mean by describing Judas as the “son of perdition”? The word perdition means “destruction, ruin, waste.” Judas was not the literal son of “ruin, destruction, and waste,” but those things were the identity of Judas' life. Judas was a manifestation of perdition. In this same way, Jesus is the Son of God. The Son of God is God. Jesus is God made manifest (John 1:1, 14).

Answer 19

There are names for him according to scripture.....you can't have one without the other...or you may get the wrong jesus and you don't any inposter. Jesus loves you....

Answer 20

son of god he made or performed miracles SON OF GOD bye

Answer 21

Sun of man makes most sense

Answer 22

Best description...dead