Julymoon
2009-10-29 13:26:58 UTC
My thoughts on polygamy in the Bible is that
God warned Solomon well in advance to NOT practice polygamy (and other sins).The lack of a specific rebuke by God is in no way to be taken as an acceptance or condoning by Him of the behavior. (polygamy) In the process of doing all this, Solomon was utterly disobedient to the Lord.
Yes, the wives were perhaps taken care of by their husbands, and procreation was needed. But these women did not already have a husband, as with Smith's women he asked for.
But is the end God makes polygamy NOT the ideal marriage for man, and IT caused many problems for these men. Even while allowing polygamy, the Bible presents monogamy as the plan which conforms to God’s ideal for marriage.
Anyways...
What about Joseph's bigamy? Was that justified in the name of God? or polyandry Biblical? (one woman having multiple husbands) as in the wives that Joseph took that were already married to living men.)
Joseph Smith asked several of his friend for their wives and daughters.
Why would it be OK in the Bible to ask for the hand of your faithful LDS friends wife? Like Joseph did?
If they already had a good LDS man? and they were going to stay living with the original husband? and you state no procreation came form Joseph?
And the answer "they wanted to be sealed to a prophet" is not really
going to work here because the reasons that polygamy was "allowed" (not approved of) in the Bible was..
1. The wives were taken care of.
and
2. to multiply and replenish the earth (procreate)
3. in the Bible times, Unmarried women were often subjected to prostitution and slavery.
None of these reasons pertain to Smith.
He sent them home to their husbands, and the LDS church claims he did not have any kids with these wives. (sexual relations with the wives is a debatable topic)
Bigamy ok?
Thoughts? Thank You